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After conversion Basic earning per share
AFM
answered on 27-Jul-26 05:38
In this question, part 3, after conversion, we need to deduct pref dividend and arive at value of EAESH and then divide by combined shares of equity and pref right, because it is after conversion, so considering pref shares dividend is must right, but why are we not taking EAESH post pref dividend and taking PAT/combined shares [Video Time Stamp: 06:54]
latest answer
Because once pref shares are converted no pref div is payable and they become equity shares
Lavanya Ravi
CA Final
★ 180
1
99
Before conversion EPS
AFM
answered on 27-Jul-26 05:36
In this question, 3rd part effect of issue on basic earning per share before conversion, why are we deducting pref dividend and arriving at EAESH and then dividing by eq shares, when the question already says before conversion, pref shares are not yet issued or converted, so only eq shares are available hence we have to do PAT/eq shares i.e 15L/5L which is already in question Rs3. may be for after conversion we consider pref shares because shares changes, but for ariving at current earnings before conversion the concept of deducting Pref dividend should not arive right? [Video Time Stamp: 06:54]
latest answer
If ₹3. Is already provided in question their intent of asking basic eps is to make studentncompute basic eps once pref shares are issued Pref div is always deducted in any basic eps computation Only in diluted eps conversion effect is given and share count changes
Lavanya Ravi
CA Final
★ 180
1
97
Doubt
AFM
answered on 24-Jul-26 18:27
Here you said yield is not equal to YTM. Please state the area where Yield=YTM,Yield not equal to YTM [Video Time Stamp: 02:13]
latest answer
Thank you sir
pavan kumar
CA Final
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2
90
Doubt
AFM
answered on 24-Jul-26 10:47
Sir here we took Yield as 11.8.then why are we finding YTM when the yield is provided. [Video Time Stamp: 03:30]
latest answer
Both words mean same thing I already responded one of your earlier queries
pavan kumar
CA Final
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3
127
Doubt
AFM
answered on 22-Jul-26 11:40
Why EBIT is called operating profit even though it includes interest which is financing activity.
latest answer
Because this profit is generated from Operations Operations are run using capital Capital includes both equity and debt
pavan kumar
CA Final
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1
97
Part 1 - Assuming expenditure is incurred initially
AFM
answered on 22-Jul-26 06:38
Sir in P 600+ part 1, 2nd assumption solved by reducing 125000 initially and solution arrived as 10.25 months by again sutracting 125000 from initial investment. [Video Time Stamp: 06:48]
latest answer
Yeah some one else also highlighted . DTP mistake Video is correct. Will update pdf online today. Thanks for highlighting
Selvakumar R
CA Final
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71
Doubt
AFM
answered on 21-Jul-26 20:44
Sir along with that please explain the difference between yield,YTM,realized yield in theoretical way.
latest answer
YTM is irr Yield in sec val bond chapter is YTM Realised yield is like MIRR after considering reinvestment income
pavan kumar
CA Final
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1
74
Doubt
AFM
answered on 21-Jul-26 20:44
For Macaulay duration we have to use yield to maturity or yield or realized yield.explain [Video Time Stamp: 15:10]
latest answer
YTM and yield are same as IRR and this has to be used
pavan kumar
CA Final
★ 3K+
1
59
illustration 29
AFM
answered on 21-Jul-26 15:29
Sir in second part they have asked " what is the amount of copper future it should short to achieve a perfect hedge if initial margin is 8%" . But we have found the initial margin alone. Is both the answers are same... am i misunderstanding the question?
latest answer
5 mt short explained at 6.18 minutes
Balavignesh
CA Final
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102
Doubt
AFM
answered on 21-Jul-26 11:28
Sir here we find present value for 6th year by taking 12%.but for calculation of gain or loss we have to compare by further discounting to Y0.
latest answer
Part 2 talks abt situation after 6 year We are not asked to compute the gain loss on day zero
pavan kumar
CA Final
★ 3K+
1
68