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doubt
AFM
answered on 22-Jun-26 11:56
Why are we doing EBIT(1-T) as tax is charged on PAT [Video Time Stamp: 08:35]
latest answer
Sorry sir a wrong doubt from my side
pavan kumar
CA Final
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89
doubt
AFM
answered on 21-Jun-26 21:25
why we are applying tax rate in the begining [Video Time Stamp: 02:21]
latest answer
We have applied that EBITDA, EBIT and at PBT all 3 levels Do have a look at full video
pavan kumar
CA Final
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121
H model
AFM
answered on 21-Jun-26 15:12
As we can use two stage discount model because the concept was same we can find the div for each and we can find pv for it and terminal value for last year and find pv add both would also give value of share right?
latest answer
👍
Bala Manoj Kumar.S
CA Final
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89
Derivatives - Options
AFM
answered on 19-Jun-26 05:57
Sir, why has the Black-Scholes formula been changed in this question? Is the change due to the valuation of a Put Option? Kindly explain how we identify which formula should be used [Video Time Stamp: 38:12]
latest answer
It is put option bsm formula explained at minute 8 If they ask unto use put option black scholes , you will use this
Vaikundaraja A
CA Final
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79
Foreign Exchange
AFM
answered on 16-Jun-26 07:16
why is that in some illustrations we use 6/12 and in some 180/365(for days)? Is there any particular reason behind this, sir? [Video Time Stamp: 14:05]
latest answer
No Depends on question and what they ask Usually days are preferred unless where details are very difficult to get in which case we use months to make computations
Jayanth
CA Final
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78
Addition of Int
AFM
answered on 12-Jun-26 11:38
Sir why interest is getting added to the Principal for the next day Calculation, (i understood that it is for compounding ) but no where they have mentioned in question i guess, Correct me if i am wrong? [Video Time Stamp: 07:25]
latest answer
ICAI has asked similar questions in exams and they have used same logic. So for icai exam purposes this is an inherent assumption you have to make
JANA KRISHNA K S
CA Final
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90
illustration number 16
AFM
answered on 09-Jun-26 13:07
sir npv means cashoutflow -pv of cash inflow is it here face value 10000 why we are not taking face value as outflow? sir current market price means is it price at the time when we purchase the bond? or price presenting running in the market? [Video Time Stamp: 08:28]
latest answer
Face value is not outflow because investment is made at 10790 which is correct outflow Final inflow is face value of 10000 In this context cmp is same as price in mkt and at which investor invested
saipriya v
CA Final
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70
illustarion no 4
AFM
answered on 08-Jun-26 14:45
sir why we don't get 100 as bond price when yield and coupon at 10%
latest answer
Because redemption is at price different than 100 Only if redemption is at par, coupon will be equal to YTM else they both will be different
saipriya v
CA Final
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82
No loss - MV approach
AFM
answered on 07-Jun-26 21:35
Sir, though we use MV approach assuming same PE post merger, still the Shareholders of NN lose out in EPS as Post merger EPS for NN shareholders (78/14.1818)*0.7273 = 4 vs Pre merger EPS - 6. Are we considering no loss in only perspective of Market Capitalisation? [Video Time Stamp: 19:12]
latest answer
Yes If Question specifies gain loss from a specific perspective use it. Else compute gain or loss on mcap and eps basis. Have explained this in subsequent problems
SANJITHA
CA Final
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148
Cost to Acquirer
AFM
answered on 08-Jun-26 10:27
Sir, whether the gain from synergy shared to target (Doom) is considered as cost to Acquirer (Elrond) Shareholders? [Video Time Stamp: 06:36]
latest answer
yes
SANJITHA
CA Final
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142