Dissolution of partnership firm

answered on 21-May-22 13:36

How is loan TO partner treated during dissolution of partnership firm class 12?

latest answer

You can understand through this example: 1 General treatment 2 Special treatment

Navjot Singh

CA Foundation

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1

244

AS 20

answered on 22-May-22 07:23

What is meant by restayed basic earning per share? Why it is calculated?....Meaning of theoritical ex-right fair value per share

latest answer

Not currently.

Anusha narayana

CA Inter

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302

Internal Reconstruction of Company

answered on 21-May-22 11:38

In April 2021 Advanced accountancy mock test q.2: 1/3 of preference dividend arrears were satisfied by equity shares of Rs.2 each. In the Given Answers it shows 8000 shares of Rs 2 each but it is 16000 shares. Please clarify

latest answer

Ok. Thank you

Srivaishnavi Satishkumar

CA Inter

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3

236

Partnerships (highest relativemethod, practical question 5 in study material)

answered on 25-May-22 10:43

Why only 4000 deducted in B capital column

latest answer

Ok Sir

OMKAR REDDY

CA Inter

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225

Bad and Doubtful debts

answered on 21-May-22 10:22

why does Provision for Doubtful Debts appear on Cr side of P&L Account

latest answer

Pls go through the video lectures. it has been explained in dept in the classes

Ratnasri N

CA Foundation

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8

472

As 4

answered on 20-May-22 21:52

Subpoint 2 is a non adjusting event right?

latest answer

Yes

pradyumna hariramani

CA Inter

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4

255

As 4

answered on 20-May-22 22:31

This non adjusting event will become adjusting event because it affects the entity or substratum of the entity ,going concern basis of accounting,right?

latest answer

Yes

pradyumna hariramani

CA Inter

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267

AS-29

answered on 21-May-22 16:35

Pls confirm whether the answer to this question is correct or not

latest answer

No worries.

Sri Ram T

CA Final

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12

300

As 26

answered on 20-May-22 19:41

In question 12.10 , subqueation 1&4 ,1 is treated as an intangible asset but 4th case is debited to p&l account 50 lakhs.In first case the legal expense will indirectly result in future economic benefits but isn't it same as in 4th case, marketing expense will also lead to future economic benefits and should be recognized as an Intamgible Asset. In 3rd case , Co, wants to capitalize 25 lakhs by disclosing it as a prior period item.What does prior period item have to do with this?Now,that it has met the recognition criteria ,why shall we not recognize it as an intangible Asset.

latest answer

And in the 3rd case, as per AS-26 when an expenditure on an intangible asset is already charged to P&L a/c it cannot be reversed and recognised in the C.Y even if it meets the recognition criteria and in this case the company wants to capitalize it as a prior period but prior period items are income or expenses which arise in the current period as a result of errors or omissions in the F.S of one or more prior periods and the 25L expenditure is not an error or omission

pradyumna hariramani

CA Inter

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2

255

Partnership acc

answered on 20-May-22 19:16

In this questions , drawings acc means wat shd I assume??

latest answer

Yes it is mistake in old SM. It is 5000pm in new SM

Reetikaa R

CA Final

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