Forums
Investment accounts
Accountancy
answered on 01-Sep-21 17:32
Why have they written come right price near brokerage of 1 percentage. ( illustration 10 )
latest answer
They mean to say the brokerage will be charged on cum right price not ex right price, so when calculating brokerage consider that
Susai Yappan
CA Inter
★ 12K+
1
651
Company accounts
Accountancy
answered on 01-Sep-21 10:02
We can convert preference shares to equity shares right ,but why have they given that we cannot convert it into any other shares? Can anyone explain it to me?
latest answer
Thank you ma'am
Soumya A
CA Inter
★ 20K+
2
780
Cash flow statement-(indirect method)
Accountancy
answered on 01-Sep-21 17:28
How to calculate tax paid for this sum?
latest answer
This is covered in class. Did you go through it?
Rubika Sankar
CMA Inter
★ 370
1
581
Giidwill
Accountancy
answered on 31-Aug-21 16:32
In 6th question) After all the adjustment, the average profit is 17,500. Here NRR is not given, then how can we arrive at goodwill by super profit basis. And the answer is option ( b ) - 8,750.
latest answer
The average profit is 4,375 the the goodwill for the three years purchase is 8,750.
Vijay K
CA Inter
★ 9K+
2
636
Purchase consideration
Accountancy
answered on 01-Sep-21 10:36
I am having doubt regarding purchase consideration.when to use this method . IIL 8 and 11 8 - pg no :5 45 11-pg.no : 5.59
latest answer
Net Payment Method - the aggregate of all payments made in the form of shares, debentures, other securities and cash to the shareholders of the transferor company is taken as consideration Net Assets / Net Worth Method - is used when all the modes of discharging the purchase consideration (e.g. Pref. Shares, Equity shares or cash payable to shareholders of transferor company) are not given and hence where Net Payment Method cannot be adopted. Under this Method, purchase consideration is ascertained by aggregating the agreed values of only those assets which have been taken over by the transferee company and deducting it from the agreed value of liabilities taken over.
Prasanna Venkatesan
CA Final
★ 3K+
3
896
Goodwill
Accountancy
answered on 31-Aug-21 11:38
Doubt 1) please check whether the hidden goodwill para is correct or not? Because according to the data given the capital of the firm ( A+B+C ) is 53,000. Doubt 2) in the example 2, they have given 1,20,000 as goodwill, then why it is accounted for only 40,000.
latest answer
Yes..!
Vijay K
CA Inter
★ 9K+
5
724
Final accounts of company
Accountancy
answered on 31-Aug-21 19:29
Treatment of proposed dividend shown in trial balance of company 1.Deducted from reserve or 2.shown as other current liability
latest answer
I don't find one but they are give in cash flow question . I think it has same treatment as intrem divided
Manu Sharma
CMA Inter
★ 370
10
675
Goodwill
Accountancy
answered on 03-Jun-24 17:20
What is mean by " remuneration from alternative employment of the proprietor " mentioned here and we are not account for it in the profit and loss account but accounting here?
latest answer
These are implicit costs or opportunity cost. Or you can consider fair share of remuneration that you would have paid to the prop.
Vijay K
CA Inter
★ 9K+
3
1K+
Reg po and invoice
Accountancy
answered on 30-Aug-21 14:50
If company A ltd issue purchase order to B ltd for 1 product amounts to 100 , they later realise the market value of the product increases and assume there may be variation in invoice . What should be the accounting treatment. Should they create provision?
latest answer
No provision needed Simply revise PO
Naveen kumar
CA Inter
★ 0
1
614
GST
Accountancy
answered on 30-Aug-21 15:57
Why gst payable is liability not an expense
latest answer
My pleasure bro or rather my duty:)
Harsh sharma
CMA Inter
★ 55
7
582