Forums
Doubt
Accountancy
answered on 23-Nov-20 16:57
Sir in this sum one partner retired but the joint life policy surrender amount is not transferred to partner's why?
latest answer
The firm will pay using other sources.
Sri kanaga Varshini
CA Final
★ 3K+
3
594
Joint Life Policy
Accountancy
answered on 23-Nov-20 17:13
In method 3 Why should we transfer joint life policy reserve account to joint life policy account?
latest answer
Because that account is no longer needed.
Swetha S
CA Inter
★ 15K+
5
601
Cheque
Accountancy
answered on 21-Nov-20 14:51
There is any difference b/w dishonour of cheque and cheque bounce
latest answer
there is no difference
Mallarapu GDR
CMA Inter
★ 2K+
1
524
Dept Accounts | Transfer at Cost- Why is there reserve?
Accountancy
answered on 22-Nov-20 01:11
MTP Nov 20: In the given case, the adjustments clearly say the transfer has been at cost. Why are we applying reserves then?
latest answer
Thank you sir
Suraj Narayanan
Qualified CA
★ 7K+
2
618
Capitalization of Removal Expenses
Accountancy
answered on 21-Nov-20 08:17
AS 10 clearly states that only expenses incurred till that date of commencement of usage of the asset are to be capitalised. However, in this case, an expense of future removal has been capitalized (May 2020- RTP). Can you please explain why and the logic?
latest answer
Decommissioning costs are also capitalised.
Suraj Narayanan
Qualified CA
★ 7K+
1
555
Ledgers
Accountancy
answered on 21-Nov-20 09:51
Normally when we're asked to write concerned ledgers and given excluding bank transactions, there is no need to write up bank ledger na??
latest answer
Thank you
Susee Arunachalam
Qualified CA
★ 26K+
2
639
Redemption of preference shares
Accountancy
answered on 20-Nov-20 13:23
Sir for calculating no of shares for fresh issue Should we divide the redeemed value by FV of equity shares or by FV+Premium at which it is issued
latest answer
Thanks sir
shivani lolla
CA Inter
★ 1K+
2
662
Question 2 and question 4 related of Redemption of Preference shares
Accountancy
answered on 20-Nov-20 13:22
Sir in question 2 we have divided amount to be redeemed by FV of equity shares issued..whereas in question 4 we have divided the amount to be redeemed by FV+premium of equity shares issued... please explain why I am confused.
latest answer
Okay Sir... understood... Thank you
shivani lolla
CA Inter
★ 1K+
2
605
Departmental accounts
Accountancy
answered on 21-Nov-20 10:12
What is logic behind this?
latest answer
Finished goods are transferred at market price.
Swathi Krishna
CA Final
★ 8K+
3
554
Department accounts
Accountancy
answered on 20-Nov-20 16:33
Why is carriage inward apportioned on the basis of purchases ?
latest answer
because that is the best cost driver.
Swathi Krishna
CA Final
★ 8K+
1
544