Forums
Goodwill
Accountancy
answered on 05-Jul-20 06:59
In calculation of Goodwill we use G.W=average profitÃ?no.of yrs of purchase Why we are calling no. of yrs as no. of yrs of purchase
latest answer
Because valuation is happening at the time of some kind of restructuring - new partner coming or old retiring etc. At that time embedded value of GW is calculated and the capital contribution / ratios etc are decided. When a new partner is coming in they are ascribing a value to it and they are purchasing a stake in the partnership by contributing capital. Such purchase price ( which includes value of goodwill) is arrived based on profits / super normal profits etc. hence the phrase no. of years of purchase of average profits
Gowshika LT
CA Final
★ 40K+
1
562
Not able to view
Accountancy
answered on 01-Jul-20 16:49
Sir I am not able to view the class for last 2 days in website. Video is buffering continuously
latest answer
Hope you have tried clearing the cache in chrome. If not please try . If the issue is still not resolved then please email support@indigolearn.com with a screen shot or pic taken from another phone so that we can connect you with our tech team
Sampathkumar sriramulu
CA Inter
★ 0
1
542
ACCOUNTING STANDARDS EPS
Accountancy
answered on 30-Jun-20 16:34
Is my understanding correct? Assume there are 500000 shares before the rights issue and the ratio of rights issue is 1:5 then 100000 shares will issued as rights issue. Step 1 : we need to calculate the ex theoretical price of the share prior to the rights issue Assume market price before rights issue is 100 and after is 75 the rights issue is at 60 So the calculation is 500000*100+100000*60= 93.33 So this is my ex theoretical price Step 2 Calculating the adjustment ratio as we have to calculate the portion of bonus issue element in the rights issue Adjustment of ratio. :: 100 market price befor the rights issue / 93.33 the price of theoretical 1.0714 Step 3 Then now we have to calculate the bonus portion that will be included in earliest periods Which is 1.0714*500000-500000= 35714 shares Now this will be taken and added to the previous year shares for example 500000 Final step Then 500000+35714= 535714 To calculate the revised eps And for the new we will have to the time line and compute
latest answer
Yes! Correct
aman kawad
CA Inter
★ 7K+
1
519
ACCOUNTING STANDARDS - 20 EPS
Accountancy
answered on 30-Jun-20 14:34
Sir As we take the cumulative preference shares of unpaid dividend every year Then how will the next year have the dividend of the previous year including as we are making sure that no dividend outstanding balance remains For eg for two year dividend is 500 each The first year we including 500 and next year how can we include 1000 as we already included 500 previous year
latest answer
The amount of preference dividends for the period does not include the amount of any preference dividends for cumulative preference shares paid or declared during the current period in respect of previous periods
aman kawad
CA Inter
★ 7K+
3
638
Exam presentation
Accountancy
answered on 30-Jun-20 11:02
In Npo sir told in video5 last 3mins of other method can we write in exam
latest answer
Yes you can but with complete working and explanation
Jashwanth S
CMA Inter
★ 2K+
2
546
Death of partners
Accountancy
answered on 29-Jun-20 20:47
How gain of y calculated.i am getting 4/15 but the answer seems to be 2/15?? Can some one show the working of gaining ratio
latest answer
Thank you..
Aravindh Kumar
CA Inter
★ 4K+
2
560
Branch
Accountancy
answered on 29-Jun-20 15:49
In illustration 13 of icai why is goods sent to branch credited to trading acc
latest answer
Sorry wrong ques no replies req.:)
Saathik Nj
CA Inter
★ 0
1
582
REDEMPTION OF DEBENTURES
Accountancy
answered on 30-Jun-20 14:43
Sir, If the balance sheet date is 31 March and the board has decided on 1 st June that the debentures are to be redeemed at the end of the year or in coming future. As we create the DRR on 31 March of previous year and the investment on or before the 30 th April so do we have to consider this DRR as a prior period item as per the AS5 ?
latest answer
Thanks
aman kawad
CA Inter
★ 7K+
2
569
Rectification of errors
Accountancy
answered on 29-Jun-20 10:19
Practical question 1
latest answer
Bad debts written off, needs a new entry => Bad Debts A/c Dr. 1560 To Trade Receivables A/c 1560 Provision for bad debts 10% of Actual debtor balance Debtor balance given = 23390 LEss: point (iv) excess amount accounted to a customer (1740-1470) = 270 Less: Bad debts written off, (not accounted earlier, entry passed now) = 1560 i.e 21560 is correct balance of debtors correct provision = 10% of 21560 = 2156 Provision created = 2320 Excess provision to be reversed now = 164 Provision for bad debts A/c Dr. 164 To P&L A/c 164
Sweety SRH
CA Inter
★ 9K+
1
624
REDEMPTION OF PREFERENCE SHARES
Accountancy
answered on 29-Jun-20 15:30
Sir/Ma'am How do we identify whether the company is Sec133 or not so that we know that SPR can't be used. What does this sentence mean
latest answer
Section 133 talks about notification of AS by Government. Most companies would fall in this category. For your second doubt refer to our revisionary video on preference share on youtube. https://youtu.be/5WSDaC_0Qfc
aman kawad
CA Inter
★ 7K+
1
554