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Corporate & Other Laws
Under the concept of resale of goods, if the seller did not gave notice to first buyer that he is going to resale non-perishable goods to second buyer, and the second buyer purchased goods by good faith, here the sale to second buyer is valid. But in this case, if buyer got profit by sale to second buyer, Can buyer have to transfer the profit to first buyer..? If yes, why.? If not, why?
Answers (4)
CA Suraj Lakhotia Admin
The question is somehow conflicting. You mentioned seller sold and later buyer got profit.
Sorry sir that was wrong text. That actually mean, If seller got profit by sale to second buyer, Can seller have to transfer the profit to first buyer? If yes.. Why? If not...why?