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Sir, in the first part of the question, they asked "At which forward rate of 2 year there will be no opportunity for arbitrage", so we have calculated the Theoretical rate for 2 years, but I don't understand how we justified that at this Forward rate, there is no Opportunity for arbitrage. [Video Time Stamp: 06:16] Video Details ------------- Advanced Financial Management - AFM Foreign Exchange Exposure and Risk Management #74. Illustration # 29 - Continuous Compounding
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