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Syallabus completion

Others

answered on 17-Mar-26 16:59

I am preparing for ca foundation september attempt this is my first attempt so till when shall my syllabus be completed so that I can get sufficient time for revisions.

latest answer

Preferably by April end of Max by mid June

Yash Kumar

Yash Kumar

CA Foundation

110

1

122

Illustration 99

AFM

answered on 17-Mar-26 13:25

In case of sell 3 months put why are we considering ask rate of 145.05 as expected spot rate. Can you please tell the logic as I did not understand it in the lecture. [Video Time Stamp: 03:31:00]

latest answer

Sell PUT

Vidyashree Anand

Vidyashree Anand

CA Final

0

1

119

Q

Financial Reporting

answered on 20-Mar-26 10:35

Sir, if investments are measured thro FVTPL, then they are shown at FV so further CFS is not required.But why does the same logic not apply to FVTOCI? [Video Time Stamp: 08:26]

latest answer

Post acquisition profits of subsidiary are to be recognised in PL. If FV Changes are recognised in OCI, the PL will not give true picture. However, IF it is recognised as FVTPL, then the Consolidated PL will reflect performance of subsidiary

SANSKRITI BADRI 2111339

SANSKRITI BADRI 2111339

CA Final

4K+

1

120

solving problems

AFM

answered on 17-Mar-26 05:34

sir do i need to solve each and every problems that sriram sir solved in the AFM class?

latest answer

If your attempt is in May 26 then u can’t do that now But if anytime beyond that. Would suggest you solve all problems

Balamurugan V

Balamurugan V

CA Final

52K+

1

178

Gain or loss on squaring off

AFM

answered on 16-Mar-26 17:33

Sir you have mentioned that we should reverse the original transaction while squaring off. So is it the original transaction of Base currency or just the initial transaction that have been entered into [Video Time Stamp: 01:00:43]

latest answer

Original transaction we entered into

Vidyashree Anand

Vidyashree Anand

CA Final

0

1

153

Q

Financial Reporting

answered on 24-Mar-26 10:12

Sir, the post acq profit of 1,18,540 is after deducting 100% dividend, So, to compute post acq share of parent, shoudn't we add back 70% dividend? It is paid to parent, so it should be eliminated? [Video Time Stamp: 30:14]

latest answer

You will add back parent's share of dividend and again deduct since its already credited to PL. So net effect is same.

SANSKRITI BADRI 2111339

SANSKRITI BADRI 2111339

CA Final

4K+

1

144

AFM may 2026 exam date

Exams

answered on 15-Mar-26 17:17

Will the AFM exam be conducted as scheduled.since it clashes with election result date does it have chances of postponement

latest answer

Will get to know by early April

bharath raj

bharath raj

CA Final

0

1

197

Q

Financial Reporting

answered on 24-Mar-26 10:18

In order to take net value of assets in this q, why are we taking 1280? Isnt this inclusive of goodwill?Shouldn't we de recognise 1190, derecognise full goodwill at 90, and then show inv in subs at 1190*10%.Why are we including goodwill instead of seperately derecognizing it fully?Is it also in proportion to the stake sold?But dont we recognise goodwill when control is obtained, and we should de recognise completely at the time of disposal of even 90%, because control is lost, and we should only show inv in subsidiary in books? [Video Time Stamp: 06:16]

latest answer

When control is lost entire goodwill and net assets are derecognised. So in this case, we have derecognised entire 90 of goodwil and net assets. The 10% stake retained is valued at fair value.

SANSKRITI BADRI 2111339

SANSKRITI BADRI 2111339

CA Final

4K+

1

168

financial liability

Financial Reporting

answered on 15-Mar-26 21:34

sir, in this question, there has been said alternatively can redeem by equity shares. but this treatment is not solved? [Video Time Stamp: 00:01]

latest answer

If the bonds are converted, then the liability portion is transferred to equity. Accounting over the period of bond does not change.

santosh durgapu

santosh durgapu

CA Final

2K+

1

136

financial liability

Financial Reporting

answered on 15-Mar-26 21:34

sir, in this question it has been said that only part conversion(50%) is redeemed at premium. what treatment shall we take if cash is also paid at premium of 10%? [Video Time Stamp: 05:12]

latest answer

Then you will consider the outflow at 10% premium. Effective interest rate will change.

santosh durgapu

santosh durgapu

CA Final

2K+

1

114