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Additional portfolio
AFM
answered on 13-Nov-25 10:21
Sir, for the amount of portfolio to be brought/given to make beta 0.8 in this question, we can use the same method as done in Illustration 32 (ii) and (iii) right? [Video Time Stamp: 06:37]
latest answer
Yes. Either way answer will be the same
Shreyas Nayak
CA Final
★ 0
1
118
Dependent Variable
AFM
answered on 13-Nov-25 08:32
Sir here Market returns should be considered as (x) independent variable and Company returns should be considered as (y) dependent variable right? Is market always considered dependent variable? [Video Time Stamp: 11:00]
latest answer
Thank you sir
Shreyas Nayak
CA Final
★ 0
2
115
How con impairment exenses be added back? In this question
Financial Reporting
answered on 14-Nov-25 16:42
Sir, In this question, they have not given any expenditure more than 540lacs(other expenses) in that case it is assumed in the solution that the amount is already deducted while arriving at the profit and it is being added back. I dont get it. Because it will not be part of COGS. Please explain the logic behind adding back impairment of goodwill and intangibles. [Video Time Stamp: 13:35]
latest answer
Impairment expense is a non-cash expense like depreciation. hence it is added back. We would have shown impairment expenses in P&L under other expenses.
Venkatesh Rathinam
CA Final
★ 15K+
1
120
Revenue vs capital expenditure
Accountancy
answered on 14-Nov-25 16:45
The horn served us for 2 years. Now if we replace it, if its serves us for 2-3 years, then would that not be a capital expenditure? If not, why would you consider it as a revenue expenditure instead?
latest answer
The question is does the replacement of horn increase the performance of bike? If it does not we cannot capitalise since no new benefits are being obtained.
Devika Venu
CA Foundation
★ 5
1
167
Business Valuation
AFM
answered on 12-Nov-25 20:03
Sir in this question, they have just mentioned revenue without telling before tax Or after tax. We have assumed it as NOPAT. But in earlier questions (ill 34) we have assumed it as PAT when both of the questions contains debt. I just wanted to know, we have assumed as NOPAT here because tax rate was not given in this particular question, If they would've given tax rate, we should assume it as PAT only right.
latest answer
Cleared sir, Thank you
Pradeepa Narayanan
CA Final
★ 5K+
4
127
Expected rate of Return
AFM
answered on 12-Nov-25 19:13
Sir you have calculated in value basis and I have calculated in per share basis. I am getting a different answer than that mentioned in the book. Could you please tell me where I am deviating from your answer?
latest answer
Ok sir thank you.
Shreyas Nayak
CA Final
★ 0
2
143
General query
Auditing
answered on 12-Nov-25 19:36
In our lecture module, we can see lectures named as company audit (i.e for dividend , accounts , LLP), could you pls guide in which chapter of icai it is, as i was going through module i could find them
latest answer
Audit of LLP wil come as a part of special audits. Rest is not the part of new syllabus. That is not removed from content here because it would be helpful
Hrishikesh Pradhan
CA Final
★ 18K+
1
137
RTI certified copy
Exams
answered on 12-Nov-25 17:07
I made payment to RTI for certified answer copies of Sep 2025 exam and the transaction got successful. However, the registration number/application number or any kind of acknowledgement is not received and the request is not yet registered. Can someone pls guide me on this
latest answer
You can check status on RTI website.
Shankari C
CA Inter
★ 3K+
1
129
Computation of Beta of Mutual Funds
AFM
answered on 13-Nov-25 00:00
Sir, in Illustration 66 [regarding D Mutual Fund & K Mutual Fund] (@ 2 hours 35mins), the Beta value that we get from the Treynor Ratio equation is actually the Portfolio Beta [={Weight*Beta(Equity)} + {Weight*Beta(Cash)}]. However, when finding out the value of Equity due to market changes we are directly using the Portfolio Beta. Shouldn't we actually use the Equity Beta for this? For instance, Beta (D Mutual Fund) = 1.50 => 0.99*Beta (Equity) + 0.01*Beta (Cash) = 1.50 => 0.99*Beta (Equity) = 1.50, since Beta (Cash) is nil => Beta (Equity) = 1.515 Original Equity Value = 70.71 * 0.99 = 70.0029 & Original Cash Value = 0.7071 Revised Equity Value = [{1 - (1.515*0.05)} * 70.0029] = 64.700 Revised Portfolio Value = Equity (64.700) + Cash (0.7071) - Expenses (3/12 = 0.25) = 65.1571 [Video Time Stamp: 02:35:18]
latest answer
Ok Sir.
Vignesh Panigrahi
CA Final
★ 1K+
2
136
Capital Advance: Long Term in nature?
Auditing
answered on 17-Nov-25 10:25
Mam, you said capital advance is something like a loans & Advance given to a party for their capital investment, is likely in nature of long term. BUT What if the amount so paid is recoverable within 12 months as per the agreement? will it still be treated as long term in nature? [Video Time Stamp: 03:18]
latest answer
Yes this format is expected and its rather a correct flow of thoughts ! We first understand question , relate to provision and then conclude. That’s the idea
Vinod Kumar
CA Inter
★ 11K+
10
200