Forums
provision amount
Financial Reporting
answered on 27-Mar-26 18:36
Sir, I have one doubt in this question. At the initial stage of recognizing provision under Ind AS 37, would it be wrong if I take the provision as ₹10 lakhs instead of ₹7.5 lakhs? My understanding is that the 75% probability here indicates that payment of ₹10 lakhs is the most likely outcome, assuming there are only 2 possible outcomes: Pay ₹10 lakhs, or No payment required Please clarify whether this understanding is correct. [Video Time Stamp: 03:06]
latest answer
ICAI is not consistent in its application in such cases. In fact in the recent exams, they considered both options / assumptions in MCQ question. If its 10 lakhs and 0 - it is two outcome and can take 10 lakhs as well.
Abhinav K A
CA Final
★ 2K+
1
25
Ind as 116 leases separation of lease and non lease components when they are interrelated
Financial Reporting
answered on 30-Mar-26 10:37
Can't we consider this lease as non separable like lease and non lease components as the equipment is not separately leased without maintenance service and hence can be highly interrelated ?
latest answer
Yes. That assumption can also be taken. However, when the question has given breakup and also stand alone price, they want students to allcoate amounts between lease and non lease components.
MANJAPARA SAI SIRISHA
CA Final
★ 0
1
24
Responsibility centre
Costing
answered on 10-Apr-26 15:57
Sir can you please give me more examples for standard cost centre and discretionary cost centre? It's understandable but still need more clarification please
latest answer
Thank you sir🙏
Mohamed NOOR JAMILAH
CA Inter
★ 800
3
32
Computation of e
AFM
answered on 26-Mar-26 16:43
Good day Sir! In case they have not given the value of e in exam, can we compute that on the calci like how you have taught in one of the introductory videos and use that? or is it compulsory to use the simple interest method of computation. We can also give a note of the same computation right? [Video Time Stamp: 05:24]
latest answer
Depends on the question If they say use continuous compounding and do not provide value of e then use the calculator trick else use other methods
Varshini Rao
CA Final
★ 35
1
21
Mcq
Accountancy
answered on 08-Apr-26 09:22
Goods distributed as free samples ₹2,000. a) Asset ↓, Capital ↓ b) Asset ↓, Expense ↑ c) Expense ↓, Asset ↑ d) No effect What should be ans for this as according to me ans should be (b) as sample goods comes under marketing expense
latest answer
The answer is option (b). While distributing as free samples it is a advertisement expense and the inventory will decrease. In option (a) the capital is reducing. The capital will reduce only when the owner withdraw goods for personal use.
Shivam Arora
CA Foundation
★ 2K+
2
40
Spread %
AFM
answered on 26-Mar-26 13:52
Sir i have doubt regarding Spread % calculation. As per ICAI, Spread % = Bid-Ask/Bid x 100 As per Formula sheet provided Spread % = Ask-Bid/Bid x 100 Is both are same sir? [Video Time Stamp: 07:31]
latest answer
Usually ask is greater than bid That is why we have formula like that You can take numbers for as diff between bid and ask
G Chandrakanta
CA Final
★ 15K+
1
32
Rounding off - decimals in PVF
Financial Reporting
answered on 26-Mar-26 12:31
Hi Sir In FR. , before going to prepare an amortization table , While finding the present value , i got Rs.4,54,600 but in Institute study material(ISM) solution Rs.4,54,590 , is it okay ? In the another case I got Rs.4,91,359 in ISM Rs.4,91,346
latest answer
Thanks Sir
Prethivi Rajan
CA Final
★ 9K+
2
24
Interest Component
AFM
answered on 26-Mar-26 12:32
Sir, In case of early actions, I understood the impact of interest component (that is. Planned flow of fund is only on due date, due to early action by customer, bank is in need of earlier than planned - so interest gets attracted for the unexpired period). With respect to after due date actions, however we are cancelling the contract as on due date itself, where it involves cashflow. Here, the cashflow happens on the planned date - then what is the logic behind interest component in this case, sir? [Video Time Stamp: 14:14]
latest answer
Bank is entering into a ODFC. So till that date they have to keep funds. If you ask for execution 2 days after due date then bank has to maintain funds idle for those 2 days
Swathi S
CA Final
★ 975
1
16
Regulations
Auditing
answered on 05-Apr-26 14:02
Ma'am is this necessary to study all the regulations? Eg: Regulations 43, 46, 47 etc (Details of which are not given in ICAI Study material) [Video Time Stamp: 11:30]
latest answer
No , this is more comprehensive. You need not when icai material doesn’t mention it .
G Chandrakanta
CA Final
★ 15K+
1
19
Internal Reconstruction - Surrendered shares
Accountancy
answered on 26-Mar-26 10:54
Settlement of contingent liability during internal reconstruction by issuing shares using surrendered shares: Journal entries: 1. Shares surrendered: Equity share capital a/c dr. To Share surrender a/c 2. Settlement of Contingent Liability using surrendered shares Share surrender a/c dr. To Equity share capital a/c Doubt: Why there is no "Reconstruction a/c" is involved in this case?
latest answer
Thank You Sir
Girinath A
CA Inter
★ 765
2
38