powered by logo

Forums

closing balance of profit and loss

Accountancy

answered on 17-Oct-25 23:06

for the point "profit for the year was Rs. 300000", in the textbook, 300000 is taken as closing balance but here while solving 300000 is added to opening balance to arrive at closing balance. which is the right approach? [Video Time Stamp: 04:16]

latest answer

300000 is pre acquistion 125 + 175 Coincidentally both numbers are 300. I actually have recorded this today. You will get access to it on Wednesday post diwali

Ritu Kotian

Ritu Kotian

CA Inter

19K+

3

153

Formula using P6 & P7

Financial Management

answered on 15-Oct-25 12:41

Sir please explain the P6 formula. i.e. P6= P7/(Ke-g). Is it the same as FV=PV(1+r)^n or D1=D0(1+g) ?, Besides, i didnt understand how Ke used in this formula, and instead of (1+r) or (1+g), the formula use (Ke-g), which seems to be confusing. I beg your pardon please. [Video Time Stamp: 09:30]

latest answer

You can watch the derivation here. https://youtu.be/QpX7n8KA1_E Let us know any further doubts if you have.

Vinod Kumar

Vinod Kumar

CA Inter

11K+

6

160

I Switch To Device Laptop

Others

answered on 15-Oct-25 08:46

I Switch To Device Laptop or One Device Available

latest answer

1 mobile app 1 laptop

V Ajith Kumar

V Ajith Kumar

CA Inter

1K+

2

133

not understanding the formula

Financial Management

answered on 15-Oct-25 06:45

i have seen this same formula for ROCE and i didnt understand it sir . ROCE post tax should be PAT/Capital employed because return is after deducting tax and capital employed is just capital employed . but in both these formulas its not PAT that is there in the numerator but it is PAT + interest in second case which gives us a very weird value right like what will u even call that value Profit after tax but before interest which makes no sense . the first case would imply that u are deducting the percentage of tax directly from the EBIT which also makes no sense . can you please explain the logic of this formula sir [Video Time Stamp: 04:42]

latest answer

ROCE

Just Enjoy

Just Enjoy

CA Inter

3K+

1

123

Bills receivable explanation

Financial Management

answered on 15-Oct-25 06:46

Let me know if im wrong , but bills receivable dishonoured means that bills receivable which was previously encashed with bank was dishonoured because of lack of payment by the initial debtor . therefore the bank balance will reduce and the debtor will increase . the answer is the same but shouldnt this be the explanation rather than bills receivables increasing ? because bills receivable account already is closed right because of encashing to bank?

latest answer

Bills receivable

Just Enjoy

Just Enjoy

CA Inter

3K+

1

131

Filing return of income and Section 44AD

Direct Taxation

answered on 15-Oct-25 18:05

Sir, can you please explain how we arrived at Rs. 11.60lakhs?

latest answer

Thank you very much, Sir.

Dhivyaa Latha

Dhivyaa Latha

CA Inter

4K+

2

118

VIDEO NOT FOUND

Others

answered on 21-Oct-25 15:00

the vdo cannot be viewed kindly see the ss

latest answer

Yes now available

Rithu V

Rithu V

CA Inter

4K+

2

136

Foreign Co. other income tax rate?

Direct Taxation

answered on 15-Oct-25 16:23

Sir, is income tax on other income of foreign co. 35% or 40%? [Video Time Stamp: 04:12]

latest answer

Ok Sir.

Rahul Anand

Rahul Anand

CA Inter

6K+

2

129

Sec 50

Direct Taxation

answered on 15-Oct-25 16:18

A company sold a machinery for 50lakhs. Wdv of block is 2cr. wdv machine at the time of sale is 45 lakhs. a) Do I need to show 5lakhs as gain on sale of fixed assets under other income in financials of company? b) as there is balance in block after sale. So is this 5 lakh taxable? If taxable then at what rate? As per capital gain or fixed tax rate applicable to company?

latest answer

Exactly. As per Section 50, capital gains would arise only when the block becomes empty or closing WDV is negative.

sandhya chitturi

sandhya chitturi

CA Final

3K+

4

169

Advanced Capital Budgeting - Illu : 25

AFM

answered on 14-Oct-25 17:43

Sir , In the annual fixed cost , why in the equation is it equal to Rs.29,727.50 , instead of Rs.0 , as if the Annual fixed cost increased by 7.8416% the NPV is zero ?

latest answer

Thank you Sir

Prethivi Rajan

Prethivi Rajan

CA Final

9K+

2

145