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closing balance of profit and loss
Accountancy
answered on 17-Oct-25 23:06
for the point "profit for the year was Rs. 300000", in the textbook, 300000 is taken as closing balance but here while solving 300000 is added to opening balance to arrive at closing balance. which is the right approach? [Video Time Stamp: 04:16]
latest answer
300000 is pre acquistion 125 + 175 Coincidentally both numbers are 300. I actually have recorded this today. You will get access to it on Wednesday post diwali
Ritu Kotian
CA Inter
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3
153
Formula using P6 & P7
Financial Management
answered on 15-Oct-25 12:41
Sir please explain the P6 formula. i.e. P6= P7/(Ke-g). Is it the same as FV=PV(1+r)^n or D1=D0(1+g) ?, Besides, i didnt understand how Ke used in this formula, and instead of (1+r) or (1+g), the formula use (Ke-g), which seems to be confusing. I beg your pardon please. [Video Time Stamp: 09:30]
latest answer
You can watch the derivation here. https://youtu.be/QpX7n8KA1_E Let us know any further doubts if you have.
Vinod Kumar
CA Inter
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6
160
I Switch To Device Laptop
Others
answered on 15-Oct-25 08:46
I Switch To Device Laptop or One Device Available
latest answer
1 mobile app 1 laptop
V Ajith Kumar
CA Inter
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2
133
not understanding the formula
Financial Management
answered on 15-Oct-25 06:45
i have seen this same formula for ROCE and i didnt understand it sir . ROCE post tax should be PAT/Capital employed because return is after deducting tax and capital employed is just capital employed . but in both these formulas its not PAT that is there in the numerator but it is PAT + interest in second case which gives us a very weird value right like what will u even call that value Profit after tax but before interest which makes no sense . the first case would imply that u are deducting the percentage of tax directly from the EBIT which also makes no sense . can you please explain the logic of this formula sir [Video Time Stamp: 04:42]
latest answer
ROCE
Just Enjoy
CA Inter
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123
Bills receivable explanation
Financial Management
answered on 15-Oct-25 06:46
Let me know if im wrong , but bills receivable dishonoured means that bills receivable which was previously encashed with bank was dishonoured because of lack of payment by the initial debtor . therefore the bank balance will reduce and the debtor will increase . the answer is the same but shouldnt this be the explanation rather than bills receivables increasing ? because bills receivable account already is closed right because of encashing to bank?
latest answer
Bills receivable
Just Enjoy
CA Inter
★ 3K+
1
131
Filing return of income and Section 44AD
Direct Taxation
answered on 15-Oct-25 18:05
Sir, can you please explain how we arrived at Rs. 11.60lakhs?
latest answer
Thank you very much, Sir.
Dhivyaa Latha
CA Inter
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2
118
VIDEO NOT FOUND
Others
answered on 21-Oct-25 15:00
the vdo cannot be viewed kindly see the ss
latest answer
Yes now available
Rithu V
CA Inter
★ 4K+
2
136
Foreign Co. other income tax rate?
Direct Taxation
answered on 15-Oct-25 16:23
Sir, is income tax on other income of foreign co. 35% or 40%? [Video Time Stamp: 04:12]
latest answer
Ok Sir.
Rahul Anand
CA Inter
★ 6K+
2
129
Sec 50
Direct Taxation
answered on 15-Oct-25 16:18
A company sold a machinery for 50lakhs. Wdv of block is 2cr. wdv machine at the time of sale is 45 lakhs. a) Do I need to show 5lakhs as gain on sale of fixed assets under other income in financials of company? b) as there is balance in block after sale. So is this 5 lakh taxable? If taxable then at what rate? As per capital gain or fixed tax rate applicable to company?
latest answer
Exactly. As per Section 50, capital gains would arise only when the block becomes empty or closing WDV is negative.
sandhya chitturi
CA Final
★ 3K+
4
169
Advanced Capital Budgeting - Illu : 25
AFM
answered on 14-Oct-25 17:43
Sir , In the annual fixed cost , why in the equation is it equal to Rs.29,727.50 , instead of Rs.0 , as if the Annual fixed cost increased by 7.8416% the NPV is zero ?
latest answer
Thank you Sir
Prethivi Rajan
CA Final
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2
145