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At7:35
CFA
answered on 13-Nov-25 07:43
If the right to buy is at 50000 and a premium is charged with the minimum amount of market difference which is in this case10000, then it can be directly bought from market instead of excercising the option... Correct? [Video Time Stamp: 07:39]
latest answer
10k
Ganesh V
CFA L1
★ 0
1
152
Interest rate reference
CFA
answered on 13-Nov-25 07:40
I know interest rate reference is an example, but which is the interest rate here we are referring to? Is this Repo rates? [Video Time Stamp: 03:54]
latest answer
Yes typically we are looking at REPO rate I’m Indian context and FED FUNDS rate is US context
Ganesh V
CFA L1
★ 0
1
136
Video at35:35 convienece yeild
CFA
answered on 13-Nov-25 07:39
If the demand and it can be sold mandatorily, they what is the reason it will decrease the value of future contract? [Video Time Stamp: 27:00]
latest answer
Convenience yield
Ganesh V
CFA L1
★ 0
1
107
dividend
Corporate & Other Laws
answered on 13-Nov-25 13:04
isn't the answer supposed to be 30th Aug is 1st and 24th sept in 2nd
latest answer
Yes, it is 30th August and 24th September.
Ritu Kotian
CA Inter
★ 19K+
1
144
proxy
Corporate & Other Laws
answered on 14-Nov-25 09:19
proxy cannot vote except by poll, right? please explain this question below under case scenario 1
latest answer
The answer should be option b
Ritu Kotian
CA Inter
★ 19K+
3
162
Additional portfolio
AFM
answered on 13-Nov-25 10:21
Sir, for the amount of portfolio to be brought/given to make beta 0.8 in this question, we can use the same method as done in Illustration 32 (ii) and (iii) right? [Video Time Stamp: 06:37]
latest answer
Yes. Either way answer will be the same
Shreyas Nayak
CA Final
★ 0
1
168
Dependent Variable
AFM
answered on 13-Nov-25 08:32
Sir here Market returns should be considered as (x) independent variable and Company returns should be considered as (y) dependent variable right? Is market always considered dependent variable? [Video Time Stamp: 11:00]
latest answer
Thank you sir
Shreyas Nayak
CA Final
★ 0
2
165
How con impairment exenses be added back? In this question
Financial Reporting
answered on 14-Nov-25 16:42
Sir, In this question, they have not given any expenditure more than 540lacs(other expenses) in that case it is assumed in the solution that the amount is already deducted while arriving at the profit and it is being added back. I dont get it. Because it will not be part of COGS. Please explain the logic behind adding back impairment of goodwill and intangibles. [Video Time Stamp: 13:35]
latest answer
Impairment expense is a non-cash expense like depreciation. hence it is added back. We would have shown impairment expenses in P&L under other expenses.
Venkatesh Rathinam
CA Final
★ 15K+
1
160
Revenue vs capital expenditure
Accountancy
answered on 14-Nov-25 16:45
The horn served us for 2 years. Now if we replace it, if its serves us for 2-3 years, then would that not be a capital expenditure? If not, why would you consider it as a revenue expenditure instead?
latest answer
The question is does the replacement of horn increase the performance of bike? If it does not we cannot capitalise since no new benefits are being obtained.
Devika Venu
CA Foundation
★ 5
1
214
Business Valuation
AFM
answered on 12-Nov-25 20:03
Sir in this question, they have just mentioned revenue without telling before tax Or after tax. We have assumed it as NOPAT. But in earlier questions (ill 34) we have assumed it as PAT when both of the questions contains debt. I just wanted to know, we have assumed as NOPAT here because tax rate was not given in this particular question, If they would've given tax rate, we should assume it as PAT only right.
latest answer
Cleared sir, Thank you
Pradeepa Narayanan
CA Final
★ 5K+
4
166