Consolidation

answered on 16-Jun-25 11:34

Normally, while calculating the Consolidated P&L balance, we include: Holding company's own P&L balance, and Holding company’s share of post-acquisition P&L of the subsidiary But in illustration 9, Holding company’s share of post-acquisition reserves of the subsidiary ------ is also included. why?

latest answer

Thank you so much sir

Girinath A

CA Inter

★ 765

2

250

Clarification on Adjusting Dividend Yield for Futures Pricing

answered on 13-Jun-25 21:22

"Sir, kindly a doubt — in the futures price, why we took full 4.8% p.a. dividend, when duration is only 6 months and only 50% of stocks pay dividend? Shouldn’t we take 1.2% (half year and 50%) as effective yield?" [Video Time Stamp: 04:24]

latest answer

4.8% p.a is dividend it can be paid any time, Some will pay in jan and some in June The Q says 50% of these stocks pay dividend Nowhere it says 50% of stick will pay half dividend in next 6 month. It only says of teh total dividend payable 50% of stocks will do so in next 6 months

Athmaja S

CMA Final

★ 230

1

185

Decision to Sell Shares Based on Intrinsic Value

answered on 13-Jun-25 11:22

Sir according to this calculation, the intrinsic value of the shares is lower than the current market price, so it is advised to sell the securities now. However, suppose the investor follows this advice and sells all his shares now or next year, but then the market price unexpectedly rises to ₹75 later on. In that case, if he wants to buy back the shares, he will have to pay a much higher price than what he sold them for. So, he lost his profit too . Ignoring the dividend and all other aspects. So this conclusion pertains to the year which we have calculated only.?

latest answer

Okay Sir. Thank you.

K Vamshi

CA Final

★ 14K+

2

191

Om and sm

answered on 13-Jun-25 09:47

Can any one tell me the answer for cma inter june 15 theroy answer

latest answer

pls hsare the question.

sakthi kumaresan

CMA Inter

★ 0

1

213

Expected return under sharpe model = Alfa+Beta*market return+unexplained error

answered on 13-Jun-25 11:32

Sir, I understand that Beta × Market Return gives the expected return for a specific security. Then why do we add Alpha again? [Video Time Stamp: 12:22]

latest answer

Yes exactly

Manikyam

CA Final

★ 0

3

170

Liability for necessaries

answered on 14-Jun-25 09:15

For example I have provided all basic necessities of ₹800000 to a minor(Shyam) till attaining age of majority 18 yrs Minor has a property of ₹1000000 which was given by his father as a birthday gift but due to any condition the father of minor died Before death of minors father There was an agreement between the minor father(Raghav) and uncle(Raghu) of the minor stating that the property is given to Raghu till the time where Shyam has not attained the majority when Shyam attains the majority the property has to be transferred from Raghu to Shyam on the same date. Shyam is beneficiary to contract. Can I be able to be reimbursed in situation 1 Property is transferred 2 Property not transferred but that agreement is with Shyam and Shyam wants that I should be compensated for those expenses which I have made on him

latest answer

Raghu here is only assigned as thee caretaker of the property the ownership of property is not transfered to Raghu.

Gurukanta Singh

CA Foundation

★ 19K+

5

366

production sharing contract

answered on 26-Jun-25 13:36

🔹 Assumptions: Total crude oil produced in a month = 1,00,000 barrels Total sale price per barrel = ₹5,000 So, total sale proceeds = 1,00,000 × ₹5,000 = ₹5,00,00,000 Recoverable costs incurred by contractor = ₹3,00,00,000 Balance = ₹2,00,00,000 → treated as Profit Petroleum Profit Petroleum sharing ratio: Contractor: 60% Government: 40% ✅ GST Treatment: Total Sale of ₹5 Cr is a taxable outward supply by the contractor. GST is levied on ₹5 Cr, not just on the contractor's profit share. Cost Petroleum (₹3 Cr): This is not excluded from taxable value. It’s an internal cost recovery, not a separate supply. Profit Petroleum (₹2 Cr): Also not a separate supply. The entire ₹5 Cr is already taxed. Sharing with Government is like a revenue split, not a transaction. Is this correct sir

latest answer

Right.

Vemula Mounika

CA Final

★ 2K+

1

203

All 4 scenarios violating the 20% rule

answered on 12-Jun-25 22:03

Company's maximum acceptable drop in NPV = 20% of Normal NPV: 20% of ₹11,28,120=₹2,25,624 So, minimum acceptable NPV (with risk): ₹11,28,120−₹2,25,624=₹9,02,496 In cases (a), (b), and (c), a 10% adverse change causes NPV to drop >20% → Not acceptable In case (d) (poor economy), NPV = −₹88,596 → Well beyond acceptable risk So with all 4 scenarios violating the 20% rule, the project is clearly rejected. What if only 2 out of 4 (say, two variables or scenarios) have NPV drop > 20%, while the other 2 are within 20% — can the project be accepted?

latest answer

Depends on which negative scenario the company is most worried abt

Shinisha Rose R

CA Final

★ 5K+

1

153

Financial Instruments

answered on 12-Jun-25 14:26

Sir , in financial instruments do we have to focus on theory part. Also so many questions have been removed from previous syllabus. Is it to be learned.?

latest answer

You need to understand and not attempt to remember theory some questions have been moved to Practice Question bank. If you are able to solve past exam papers since 2018, it is more than sufficient.

R M

ACCA Professional

★ 4K+

1

161

Consideration of Beta as 1

answered on 12-Jun-25 23:13

Sir, Could you explain why the Beta value is taken as 1 for Market and 0 for Treasury Bill.?

latest answer

Thank you Sir.

K Vamshi

CA Final

★ 14K+

2

190