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Forex chapter Ill-72

AFM

answered on 21-May-25 10:40

Earlier A/Cs are sold at 500 EUR But when price is fixed @ Rs 25000 their customer has to pay only 483.09 EUR (ie Rs25000/51.75) So Reduction in price is 3.382% (ie;[ 500-483.09]/500*100) Then Demand Increase by 5.073% (ie;3.382%*1.5) So revised demand is 2528 approx (ie 2400units*1.0573 ) Sir, Is this Logic Correct?

latest answer

No, the price is fixed in INR and not Euro So equivalent Euros is the price - you have to ignore old price of 500 when you make this revised computation as they said price is fixed in INR. Comparision has to be 25000 @ 51.50 vs 25000 @ 51.75 I agree question can be worded better This is ICAI illustration 48 Page 10.104 https://resource.cdn.icai.org/83287bos67342-cp10.pdf

rashid poonthala

rashid poonthala

CA Final

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230

Tide demand

Economics

answered on 21-May-25 10:44

Is the definition correct Tide demand are those demand where demand for a product gives rise to demand for other goods which are used with that good. Tide demand is also called complementary goods In video there are two examples Can we use these examples for our benefits Calculator gives rise in demand for battery Pen gives rise in demand for ink Notebooks gives rise in demand for pen or pencil Blackboard gives rise in demand for chalk Correct me wherever I am wrong

latest answer

Thanks for confirming

Gurukanta Singh

Gurukanta Singh

CA Foundation

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248

arbitrage illustraion 9 forex

AFM

answered on 21-May-25 17:08

sir in this illustration we bought SGD against rupee in the first tranche not USD.

latest answer

Ok sir thanks

Akshat Sharma

Akshat Sharma

CA Final

510

9

284

AI

CFA

answered on 21-May-25 07:53

which is best suited for investing in a matured company for their reconstruction or for their expansion. Option A, Venture Capitalist. Option B, Private Equity. Option C, Distressed Investing.

latest answer

B PE

Dhakshana Dhakshana

Dhakshana Dhakshana

CFA L2

18K+

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178

Coupon interest is 80

AFM

answered on 21-May-25 07:52

The coupon interest is taken as 80 in the solution provided in material provided.

latest answer

Regret the inconvenience - will correct the material - thanks a lot for highlighting the same

Sugathan P.R

Sugathan P.R

CA Final

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Regarding books

AFM

answered on 20-May-25 17:11

I've purchased FR and Afm course. Today I've received a mail which shows cost around Rs. 3311 for the books, aren't the books cost included in the course fee?

latest answer

Ok sir. Thank you so much

Evangeline Rebecca D

Evangeline Rebecca D

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Reason for not deducting 1st year dividend of Rs. 10,000 while calculating closing NAV on 31.3.2024 when the return of 193.134% includes 1st year return also.

AFM

answered on 20-May-25 16:19

Why was only the second year dividend (20,976 ) considered when calculating NAV on 31.03.2024? while the holding returns calculated 193.134% in 2nd year is for 21 months .

latest answer

Only second year divided is considered because first year dividend is already added to unit count and in order to arrive at unit count for year 2 you will have to consider divided of year 2 that is re invested

Shinisha  Rose R

Shinisha Rose R

CA Final

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224

OH lag?

Financial Management

answered on 20-May-25 16:16

@11 Only lag in wages calculated But at last wages and overheads given that *accrue similarly* Means for OH also 1.5months isn't it sir

latest answer

Production is carried on through 52 weeks evenly & OH & wages accrue means they both accrue equally over these 52 weeks. Here accrual does not refer to payment terms but actual incurring of expenditure in 52 weeks Payment terms for OH is no lag. You can state this as an assumption psl check icai Q 6 page 9.120 & 9.141 https://resource.cdn.icai.org/81839bos65985-cp9u6.pdf

anju B

anju B

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273

Tenure of INR Loan

AFM

answered on 20-May-25 14:04

Have we assumed the tenure of the INR loan to be 6 months?

latest answer

Yes

Ruthvik Reddy Adala

Ruthvik Reddy Adala

CA Final

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194

Prepaid expenses

Financial Management

answered on 21-May-25 14:39

@11.40 All expenses are paid in one month *advance* Then those are prepaid expenses which are said to be in current assets side But here said one month delay ?

latest answer

The video has been changed. Thanks for highlighting

anju B

anju B

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