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Calculation of 't'
AFM
answered on 16-Feb-25 21:23
Sir, why did we not done 1/12 as it is given that it is a one month call, so t=1/12, accordingly the answer might vary.
latest answer
Okk sir !!
Hrishikesh Pradhan
CA Final
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2
192
Borrwoing cost in Service concessions arrangment
Financial Reporting
answered on 18-Feb-25 11:15
Sir, Regaridng Borrowing cost, we should capitalsie if its considered as intangible asset (right to collect fees) or else charge to P&L(when its treated as financial Asset) In the notes/ICAI material its given Borrowing costs incurred by the operator • Operator has a contractual right to receive an intangible asset: recognise as an expense. • Operator does not have a contractual right to receive an intangible asset: capitalise during the construction phase. So what it means Operator has a contractual right to receive an Intagible Asset, ? (I think in the IND AS 115 bare act its mentioned properly, but in notes/icai material its mentioned reverse)
latest answer
Printing error. Will correct it. Thanks for highlighting.
Hemachandra D
CA Final
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166
High Discount Rate
AFM
answered on 16-Feb-25 15:06
Sir, in this Video you @ 10(mins):35(secs) you are saying that Initial Cashflows have more impact when Discount rate is Higher. I have attached Images can you look into and Explain your Point again Sir.
latest answer
PLs compute sum of all PVs Then compute weight of each years PV on total NPV Do this at 10% and 15% Weight of year 1 CF is higher when rate is 15%
Mohanbabu N
CA Final
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260
computation of Ke
Financial Management
answered on 16-Feb-25 15:37
video time-32:00. Sir Dividend payout (i.e 60%) is given for NEXT YEAR ,then why we are considering it as D0 and not as D1.
latest answer
Because BS is given for 31 dec 22 Expansion is happening in 2023 We are computing WACC & Ke at end of 2023 So for Ke 2023 the dividend of next year ( 2024) is relevant and not profits / dividends of 2023
Satheesh Kumar
CA Inter
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158
Meaning
Indirect Taxation
answered on 20-Feb-25 00:10
What is the meaning of this para sir?
latest answer
Okay sir, thank you!
Viveka R
CA Inter
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220
ill 15
AFM
answered on 16-Feb-25 12:37
sir in this question,while computing risk,ie,SD,why do we consider NPV instead of actual CF's?Why cant we consider Npv+cash outflow in Yr0?
latest answer
SD
SANSKRITI BADRI 2111339
CA Final
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224
For QRMP individuals, do they have to submit GSTR 1 on monthly basis?
Indirect Taxation
answered on 19-Feb-25 21:57
For QRMP individuals, do they have to submit GSTR 1 on monthly basis?
latest answer
They submit B2B invoices using IFF for first and second month of quarter. After third month is over they will file GSTR 1.
Manu Jacob
CA Final
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250
Eligibility
Others
answered on 16-Feb-25 11:38
Is a cma inter cleared student eligible for writing ca inter exams directly after 9 months(previously not qualified ca foundation)
latest answer
Ok sir thank you
Ramya Telikicherla
CA Final
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199
Depreciation
AFM
answered on 09-Sep-25 17:05
What is the purpose of deducting depreciation from profits and add back the tax benefits from depreciation in CFAT
latest answer
- Accurately reflect the cash flow generated by the business - Account for the tax benefits of depreciation - Provide a clearer picture of the company's financial performance
Nitin Raj
CA Final
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232
Exchange margin
AFM
answered on 16-Feb-25 11:28
Sir, Kindly advise, why we have not considered exchange margin for swap loss and for forex rate used in interest calculation.
latest answer
Margin is applicable only on cancellation rate, rebooking rate - not on swap rate & int computation rates check pg 10.42 & 43 ill 9 which is the same Q as in P 600+ https://resource.cdn.icai.org/83287bos67342-cp10.pdf
Venkatesh S
CA Final
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255