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When we have already found the weight as 0.2 and 0.8, why are we finding correct weight?
AFM
answered on 23-Jan-25 21:38
When we have already found the weight as 0.2 and 0.8, why are we finding correct weight? What does it mean and what is the difference between both the weights?
latest answer
Becuase .2 & .8 are book value weights and we are trying to find out market value weights
Manu Jacob
CA Final
★ 6K+
1
251
as 12
Accountancy
answered on 27-Jan-25 23:48
sir in refund of grants under deferred gov grant we need to depreciate the asset normally and in proportion to that we charge the deferred gov grant so if we are treating it as normal depreciation we would also deduct the residual value right sir but in this video we didnt why sir cuz we did the same question but in this case rather than cost reduction thats the only different so the residual value is there right sir which is 4l
latest answer
yes sir thank you sir.
N.V Karthikeyan
CA Inter
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236
Debt and Euity Market
AFM
answered on 23-Jan-25 18:46
Sir you Said In India we Borrow from Banks and NBFC Largely and on the other hand you are saying the Equity MARKET IS LARGE IN India as Compared to debt Market Can you please elaborate a little bit
latest answer
we all invest in shares but do not invest significantly in debt offerrings Corporate Debt market is undeveloped as we have poor bankruptcy procedures ( it takes years together) and debt guys like to get back money if biz shuts down. They have lower risk appetite than eq guys Becuase eq is highest end of risk we invest in it a lower risk instrument like debt req better systems which we do not have
Gauri Shete
CA Final
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1
225
Perfect Hedge
AFM
answered on 24-Jan-25 07:16
Sir when we do perfect Heding we end up in a situation No net gain/loss, so in this case when the Index becomes 27000, then Gain from futures is 9,69,750 as calulated in the solution, and the loss on the value of poroflio shares will be 6060000 * 15%(10%down *1.5 beta) = 9,09,000 So, Gain in futures by Rs 9,69,750 Loss in Portfolio shares by Rs 9,09,000 So why this difference ?, how to interpret this difference
latest answer
In this question basis risk arises on account of hedging instrument maturity and hedging duration being diff If u use same maturity instrument u will not have any diff In some cases it is because of rounding off
Hemachandra D
CA Final
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3
238
Insolvency and Bankruptcy code 2016
Corporate & Other Laws
answered on 28-Jan-25 17:02
My example Small Residential Project Total Project Allottees: 30 The following are the investment Detail from Home Buyers A) 1cr B)50 lakhs C) 50 lakhs From reaming 27 person from each 1 lakh Now how you apply threshold limit for application My doubt is 1) is Buyer A is alone is eligible to file CIRP 2) The reaming 27 buyers are only jointly applied for CIRP is it valid?
latest answer
No. Buyer A alone is not eligible to file CIRP, even though they have invested ₹1 crore. The threshold under IBC requires at least 3 allottees to jointly file, irrespective of their individual investment amount. Yes. If the 27 buyers (each investing ₹1 lakh) jointly apply, it satisfies the minimum threshold of 3 allottees required under IBC, and the application will be valid.
Chan Dra
CA Final
★ 0
1
230
Incorporation of Company
Corporate & Other Laws
answered on 28-Jan-25 13:38
In this declaration given by professional such as CA, "CS", Cost Account & person named in articles such as "CS", Manager or Director. Can same CS who is engaged in the formation of company and whose name is in articles make 2 sign.
latest answer
Ok mam. Thank you
Lathika
CA Inter
★ 6K+
2
239
Proprietor
Financial Management
answered on 24-Jan-25 12:53
Equity=networth=proprietor funds Then why they have two different ratios 1) equity ratio 2) proprietory ratio Both are same ...!??
latest answer
Proprietary fund & Proprietary ratio terminologies are not often used in the real word Networth & Debt Equity ratio are preferred terminology. ICAI has included this in syllabus for knowledge purposes
anju B
CA Inter
★ 21K+
3
241
Total assets
Financial Management
answered on 24-Jan-25 19:47
Here,in this video total assets is nothing but equity+debt What about the current liabilities means E+D+C.A = T.A
latest answer
Pls ping here only for queries
anju B
CA Inter
★ 21K+
10
311
Adv itt and MCS during articleship under new scheme
Others
answered on 25-Jan-25 10:07
Whether leave for MCS orientation and adv itt will be considered as leave for articles under new scheme?
latest answer
Ok, Thank you sir
Sajeetha R
CA Final
★ 46K+
2
454
Return on capital employed
Financial Management
answered on 24-Jan-25 13:05
PAT +interest Why we have to include interest In post tax which means only PAT? what about in ROT, ROE scenario we use only PAT for calculation ?
latest answer
No. It is correct only Numerator should be income for all financiers ( Debt and Equity) so it has to be EBIT and not after deducting Interest - it can be pre or post tax Denominator is CE, i.e Debt + Equity ( it also considers all financers) This logic should apply in all kinds of ratios ( some illogical exceptions are made by ICAI in their material but not in real world :) )
anju B
CA Inter
★ 21K+
9
271