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Class boundaries
Maths & Stats
answered on 11-Apr-26 10:37
Mutually inclusive and exclusive
latest answer
Mutually exclusive (or exclusive) frequency distributions define classes where data values belong to only one interval, as the upper limit of one class is the lower limit of the next (e.g., 0–10, 10–20). Mutually inclusive (or inclusive) distributions include both upper/lower limits, often resulting in gaps between intervals (e.g., 0–9, 10–19), frequently requiring conversion to exclusive for analysis.
SriVidhya M S
CA Foundation
★ 0
7
52
iv) Rights unsold
AFM
answered on 08-Apr-26 12:50
Sir, In all these right issue problems, are we assuming that all shareholders subscribes to the right share offered to him. And here in the last scenario, he loses the opportunity to earn Rs. 1600 by not selling the right share, will the 250 shares he holds through right issue have any impact in his wealth? [Video Time Stamp: 05:19]
latest answer
Ans to first question - yes assuming all shares are subscribed to. In last part - if he subscribes to issue, his share count increases and even though share price falls there is no change in wealth If he does not subscribe and does not sell rights - he is at a loss as share price falls and he has same number of shares
SANJITHA
CA Final
★ 5
1
17
Dividend growth rate from Y3 onwards
AFM
answered on 08-Apr-26 12:48
Sir, Are we taking growth rate of dividends for Y3 as 10% because the growth rate for earnings is mentioned in question as 10% from Y3. For dividend, growth rate is not directly given but payout ratio is provided instead. Here is it like, to maintain the same growth rate as earnings; the pay-out has to be 50%. Is this interpretation right? Even when growth rate of dividends arrived using D3 and D4 value (computed in answer using pay-out), it is same as growth rate of earnings i.e. 10%. [Video Time Stamp: 12:14]
latest answer
No. Why will we compute DPS growth rate when Payout ratio is specified for a period
SANJITHA
CA Final
★ 5
1
16
Selling price of share
AFM
answered on 08-Apr-26 06:18
Sir, In the second part of answer, how we arrive at selling price of share of Rs. 568 for comparing it with PV of inflows to determine the maximum purchase price. [Video Time Stamp: 12:56]
latest answer
563
SANJITHA
CA Final
★ 5
1
18
Illustration
Financial Management
answered on 08-Apr-26 10:19
Equity value and pref value was already given in question..why we did not consider them to calculate prop.ration. [Video Time Stamp: 02:17]
latest answer
Because when you use the word Equity it also includes Reserves & Surplus i.e accumulated profits and losses. Whatever Equity Shares and Pref shares data is provided in the question, that is consists of only share capital value and not Reserves. hence we have to find out Equity or Net worth separately and cannot use Share capital in its place
Leela Sowmya
CA Inter
★ 0
1
16
Margin Applicable
AFM
answered on 09-Apr-26 17:13
Sir I have doubt regarding when will Exchange Margin applicable? And here New Contract rate is 63.7275 + 0.1% = 63.7900 (Round off). Customer is agreed to buy USD @ 63.7275 and We as a Banker agreed to sell USD. Then as banker when sale happens Margin will be reduced right? Why in this case we added margin? [Video Time Stamp: 17:34]
latest answer
No. Margin is always receivable by Bank and payable by customer
G Chandrakanta
CA Final
★ 15K+
4
27
Sir u saying as per AS16 AS28 sometime
Accountancy
answered on 08-Apr-26 09:35
Sir can i watch as16 or as 28 first then watch as video I already able to understaning everything in normal speed
latest answer
Watch as per sequence. You will learn respective aspects later.
Roshan G
CA Final
★ 130
1
15
Expected value
AFM
answered on 08-Apr-26 06:19
here the amount of disposed must be more than 60. beacause we will sell the right only if inflow is more than 60.? or dispose means irrespective if inflow.? ( obi-sly it should be less than 100( Spot). so can we sell below 60 also.? [Video Time Stamp: 04:03]
latest answer
Yes But here question is using binomial method. In this world only two scenarios exist 60 or 130
Vinod Kumawat
CA Final
★ 370
3
26
Dividend (D1)
AFM
answered on 07-Apr-26 19:28
Sir, here, D1 is arrived by using the pay-out ratio, i.e. D1 = 11.11 * 55% = 6.11. Is it fine if I assume it as D0 and derive at D1 by adding growth of 15%, i.e. D1 = 6.11(1.15) = 7.026. Whether is it good to go with D1 as 6.11 or we take include growth in dividend? [Video Time Stamp: 05:01]
latest answer
Do or D 1
SANJITHA
CA Final
★ 5
1
21
Dividend
Financial Reporting
answered on 08-Apr-26 14:47
Sir, can you explain the adjustments to do when 1. Dividend is declared but not approved in AGM 2. Dividend declared not paid 3. Dividend declared and Paid 4. Dividend paid of Pre acquisition or post acquisition profits Because this is how PY questions were asked and i dont know how to answer
latest answer
1. No separate treatment 2. Show dividend payable as outstanding. 3. REduce from retained earnings and bank 4. Same treatment.
Hariharan Ravichandran
CA Final
★ 2K+
1
22