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Business combination , illustration 10 scenario 2
Financial Reporting
answered on 19-Jan-26 16:00
information obtained on december 20X1 ,is it comes with in measurement period of 1 year? Then why it is not adjusted [Video Time Stamp: 04:54]
latest answer
Results due to event occuring after. So it does not provide us information / evidence for conditions existing on date of acquisition. (Same like adjusting/non adjusting events)
saipriya v
CA Final
★ 350
1
65
question paper
Auditing
answered on 21-Jan-26 07:22
Mam whether in the exam they mention the type of SA or otherwise we have to find that one
latest answer
They will not mention. We need to relate to the standard and give answer accordingly
21SCO08 mahalakshmi
CA Inter
★ 1K+
1
96
Clean Price and Dirty Price
AFM
answered on 17-Jan-26 19:21
Sir, I am fully confused in Clean Price and Dirty Price concepts. Please explain, sir. [Video Time Stamp: 05:24]
latest answer
👆is for bonds For repo Clean + AI = DP
Murali Thripuraboina
CA Final
★ 3K+
2
67
Question paper Analysis
Exams
answered on 17-Jan-26 10:37
Ca final fr jan 2026 paper analysis pdf is not available in the website
latest answer
Added.
N Praneetha
CA Final
★ 22K+
1
85
Premium over the straight value of debenture
AFM
answered on 17-Jan-26 11:51
Sir, I have a doubt regarding Illustration 23 and Illustration 29. In Illustration 23, while calculating the percentage of downward risk, the solution was calculated using: I. (CMP of bond−Straight value)/CMP of bond (which was taught by you in the class), but in the solution, it was also calculated alternately as II. (CMP of bond−Straight value)/Straight value of the bond. However, in Illustration 29, while calculating the premium over the straight value of the debenture, only the second formula (with straight value as denominator) is used. Since one of the formulas used for downward risk is identical to the premium over straight value formula, I am confused whether both concepts are the same. Please clarify the conceptual difference and which denominator should be preferred. [Video Time Stamp: 05:48]
latest answer
Both are diff When we say Premium we are referring to the additive part; for eg in 100 + 10 = 110 , 10 is premium; ideally when computing as % we do 10/100 In downside risk , ideally we should talk of reduction i.e 111-11= 100 in this 11 is downside and it is from 111. ideally when computing as % we do 11/111 for Downside risk in some questions icai gave alt answer as 11/100 ; hence i gave alt solution
Murali Thripuraboina
CA Final
★ 3K+
1
87
CARO 2020 Clause 21
Auditing
answered on 27-Jan-26 08:23
Whether clause 21 reporting to be done in standalone FS Audit report of Parent or in Audit report of Consolidated FS? [Video Time Stamp: 02:40]
latest answer
CARO is never in context or CFS
rashid poonthala
CA Final
★ 31K+
4
100
ISM ILL 17 same model
Financial Management
answered on 16-Jan-26 16:00
sir if they given in qn market price then we have compute mv less floatation cost [Video Time Stamp: 20:00]
latest answer
Yes. IF MP is given then you have to follow what you suggested
21SCO08 mahalakshmi
CA Inter
★ 1K+
1
93
Doubt regarding study material
Financial Reporting
answered on 09-Feb-26 17:19
Is there any major changes in ICAI study material 2025 and 2026?
latest answer
https://1fin.link/resource/f3d44c2befaf4762ba999c2baa70780a/c0561a7f2b254a328b83608ffe5e70df
Gomathi K
CA Final
★ 40K+
9
92
Arbitration process in chapter 5
Financial Management
answered on 16-Jan-26 10:42
Can anyone explain me how arbitrage process works in question 9 and 10 of chapter 5 in 1fin material, I couldn't get it even I read twice ...
latest answer
This whole arbitrage process taught in Inter is a weird one and will have to be unlearned once you reach final. Anyway the concept used in CA Inter FM is as below: Assume you invest an amount of money in two companies to get some stake. The investment can be equity and or debt depending on what is the capital structure of the company. Investment should be same % of equity & Debt Compare returns of both companies and see where you will need lower investment to generate same return Alternatively, if same amount is invested in one of the companies you will generate higher return Arbitrage is possible when you move from low return providing company to a higher return providing company
Nagachaitanya Nomula
CA Final
★ 8K+
1
84
calculation of dep
Financial Management
answered on 15-Jan-26 10:38
Sir in the question they given salvage value then why we not consider it for calculation of dep [Video Time Stamp: 01:25]
latest answer
salvage value = cost of disposal for main equipment hence not considered for addtl equipment sal val of 1 lac considered and dep of 1.5 computed
21SCO08 mahalakshmi
CA Inter
★ 1K+
1
94