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Financial Management
answered on 03-Apr-24 13:04
How to access mock test in package
latest answer
We thought it was already added - just realized it was not for FM
Akshaya Devaraj
CA Final
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4
282
Derivatives - Maintenance Margin
AFM
answered on 31-Mar-24 16:56
Hello sir, Please clarify on this In Ill.14, we calculated Maintenance margin on % of Initial Margin as given clearly in the question. In Ill.27, We calculate Maintenance margin on % of Everyday closing values, as only % in the question. Unless given in the question, should we always calculate Maintenance margin on closing values of everyday price? Do we need to make an assumption or it is the normal practice and no assumption is needed?
latest answer
Okay sir, Thank you so much!
Susee Arunachalam
Qualified CA
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2
476
Exemption
Exams
answered on 30-Mar-24 22:32
Suppose a person has filled exam form for both the groups but now he is confident in only one group say group 2 and to claim exemption in any of subject of grp2 in case he didn’t clear should he be present for all the exams i.e., g1 and g2 or only exams of g2. Please clarify with regard to the same
latest answer
Appearing for Entire one group is sufficient
Sugam SM
CA Final
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3
470
Amendments
Corporate & Other Laws
answered on 10-Dec-25 11:25
Is there any amendments for corporate & other laws for May 24 exams?
latest answer
No
Soon to be CA
CA Inter
★ 4K+
2
341
Derivatives
AFM
answered on 31-Mar-24 16:57
Hello Sir, Please correct me if I am wrong, Gain or loss is always calculated on forward prices, But In this problem (part b), If instead of 28 day e value, if 62 days e value was given, then we would have compared 90 Day forward price (2303.6484) with 62 day forward price and calculated the gain. Since we are given e value for 28 days, we are comparing Spot on 28th day vs Forward price for 28 days and the calculated 90 day forward price becomes irrelevant?
latest answer
Understood sir, thank you so much!
Susee Arunachalam
Qualified CA
★ 26K+
2
389
Framework
Accountancy
answered on 11-Apr-24 09:10
Icai material Pg: 2.35 5th point If exp is amortized over 4 years@5000 Then why is the amount shown in P&L is 15000
latest answer
When it is a going concern we can amortize the deferred expenditure over 4 years. Here there is no going concern so we can consider the amount of 15000 in p&l a/c
Monika T
CA Final
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1
405
Illustration 1 on Netravati Ltd.
Financial Reporting
answered on 05-Apr-24 17:42
Sir, you have not discussed the second part of this question in this video; i.e., whether the answer will change if the office space was purchased with the intention of using it as an administrative centre of the Company. In this case won't the property be treated as Plant, Property & Equipment under Ind AS 16 instead of as an Investment Property under Ind as 40?
latest answer
Classification will change. Final answer on expense will not.
Antara MuraliKrishnan
CA Final
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4
403
EWAY BILL III (video time: 8:58)
Indirect Taxation
answered on 30-Mar-24 20:19
If a person wants to generate an e-way bill he must be registered in both GST portal and EWAY bill portal. In that case, how can an unregistered person generate an e-way bill without registering in on the GST portal?
latest answer
An unregistered person can take temporary registration and generate ewaybill.
AKASH V
CMA Final
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267
EWAY BILL III (video time: 5:27)
Indirect Taxation
answered on 30-Mar-24 20:20
Special case 2: if Mr.x did not generate an e-way bill and mentioned the details of the transporter in part B, such transporter is required to generate an e-way bill. Question: if Mr X did not generate the e-way bill how can he fill Part B details in the e-way bill?
latest answer
Mr. X can mention the details of transporter and assign the waybill to transporter.
AKASH V
CMA Final
★ 290
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256
Share Appreciations Right
Financial Reporting
answered on 01-Apr-24 05:12
What is exactly Share appreciation rights? I thought Share appreciation right means the holders will get payment on appreciated Rate eg: ie on grant date FV of share 120 within 2 years if they make possible to cross share price 150 then they will get money on appreciated value ,within 2 years share FV became 160 so SAR is 40 (160-120) is it correct?
latest answer
Share Appreciation Rights (SARs) are a form of employee compensation that gives employees the right to receive cash or stock based on the increase in the value of a company's shares over a specified period. Unlike stock options, SARs do not require the employee to purchase shares but instead provide them with the monetary equivalent of the appreciation in the company's stock price. Let's say an employee is granted 1,000 SARs as part of their compensation package. The current market price of the company's shares is Rs. 100 per share. The SARs have a vesting period of three years. After three years, the market price of the company's shares has increased to Rs. 150 per share. The SARs entitle the employee to receive the appreciation in the value of the shares, which is Rs. 50 per share (Rs. 150 - Rs. 100). So, the total payout to the employee would be: Total SARs payout = Number of SARs * Appreciation per SAR = 1,000 SARs * Rs. 50 = Rs. 50,000
Surya Prakash
CA Final
★ 19K+
2
411