Forums
Forex Ill 15
AFM
answered on 13-Mar-24 20:58
Hello Sir, In this problem, when converting CAD to USD in part-1 Bid rate has to be considered right (1.255)
latest answer
yes
Suresh Avinash
CA Final
★ 3K+
1
348
Retained earnings market price (po)
Financial Management
answered on 15-Mar-24 15:01
Sir in first sum we used 200 for po In second sum we used 125 instead of 130 why
latest answer
As mentioned in the attachment. they are different approaches. so in exam write a note saying about the alternative method also for which the answer may differ slightly.
Shivaraj Thekkatte
CA Inter
★ 0
1
241
Advanced capital budgeting
AFM
answered on 10-Mar-24 13:09
Why are we taking cost of capital as discounting rate ? What is cost of capital in this context?
latest answer
Cost of capital is the overall cost of capital (WACC). The cost of capital is often used as the discount rate in financial analysis because it represents the opportunity cost of using funds in a particular investment or project
Hanumanthu Rajesh
CA Final
★ 7K+
1
300
Notes
Others
answered on 10-Mar-24 13:03
I want notes for this can i get it?
latest answer
You can note down the formulae as you complete the sessions.
Parul Singh
US CMA All
★ 0
1
266
Recognition of Bonus Payable - Interim
Accountancy
answered on 10-Mar-24 12:56
Hi sir, hope you're well. Bonus payable, must be proportionately accounted for prospectively over the interim periods, only if the same is a legal obligation. My doubt is whether the same treatment must be given, if the obligation isn't legal but constructive? Thanks.
latest answer
Yes
Devaprasad Jothimani
CA Inter
★ 0
1
348
dividend decisions
Financial Management
answered on 15-Mar-24 16:44
video no. 13 what is a multiplier?
latest answer
Please ignore, as it was there in Graham & Dodd's model, which is now excluded in the syllabus.
Roobashree Rajagopal
CA Final
★ 1K+
1
411
As 28
Accountancy
answered on 10-Mar-24 13:01
I gone through the classes but still it's not clear that what is the difference between Bottom up test and top down test. In both the impairment loss is primarily setoff with Goodwill and secondarily with carrying amnt. Then what is the difference? Kindly consider my queries. Im really confused.
latest answer
Say we have 3 CGUs - A, B & C. If goodwill can be allocated on reasonable basis we allocate goodwill to A, B & C and test for impairment of each CGU - This is bottom up. If Goodwill cannot be allocated on reasonable basis, we identify the next higher level CGU. Say combination of A, B & C and then test for impairment of all three CGU (larger CGU) including goodwill. This is top down.
1 Minute Review
CA Inter
★ 405
3
459
As 25 Interim financial report
Accountancy
answered on 08-Mar-24 14:40
Can I know how the ansr 17000 is computed?
latest answer
Ok sr
1 Minute Review
CA Inter
★ 405
2
2K+
Books by indigo learn
Strategic Management
answered on 10-Mar-24 12:55
Shall I use the book provided by indigo learn in free resources for strategic management ? Is the book covers all the concepts in detail?
latest answer
Yes
Siva Balan
CA Final
★ 2K+
2
451
presentation doubt
AFM
answered on 08-Mar-24 04:40
concept r clear sir, i have doubt in presentation part , need to present every step in exam or presentation in classes which is enough for presentation in exam sir especially for variance (x-x bar)whole square ,
latest answer
Upto you. step wise is as much for you to cross check as it is for evaluator X-x bar computation may not carry step wise marks
Hariharan S
CA Final
★ 5K+
1
284