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In your YouTube video , redemption of pref share , we learnt that , we have to divide the preference share holder value by fv of equity to find no of equit shares to be issued, but in the (1hr 02 min) video. It’s adding the premium with fv as issue price and dividing . Pls explain
Answers (9)
Balachandar S
If possible post that question over here.
In this illustration, the video has changed the que to issues of equity shares at premium too . That is 50 fv and 10 premium . So they do 37500 shares divided by 60 instead of of 50 . Is it because the amount payable on redemption also has premium ?
Shrikant
Funds required from fresh issue 37500 No: of shares to be issued =37500/50 =750shares What's your doubt then
No , please read my que again . In the video the question has been changed to issue with premium too . 50 fv and 10 Prem .