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Financial Management
works cost is assumed to be equal to the cost of good sold under the assumption that the opening & closing value of both wip and finished goods is not given in the question, but the value of closing stock of finished goods is given in the question, and is also computed later on by sir at 6 % of the works cost,so isn't this assumption worng? Video Details ------------- Financial Management Financial Analysis & Planning - Ratio Analysis #18. Illustration 3: Balance Sheet from Ratios - Part 2
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