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then we have to calculated cos of fund assuming premia = ( FV ) multiply by (1-rate) , 64*(1-0.02) = 62.72 hence premia = 64-62.72 = 1.28 per USD =1.28*60000= 76800 i.e cost will be here also . means premia = 2% of 64 ( whether included or not) only we will compare spot rate vs 62.72 for total gain /loss cost remain same in both case. [Video Time Stamp: 08:36] Video Details ------------- Advanced Financial Management - AFM Foreign Exchange Exposure and Risk Management #99. Illustration # 54
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While your though process is right. ICAI awards marks only if you follow their logic refer page 86 solution to illustration 23 https://resource.cdn.icai.org/87851bos-aps2163-ch10.pdf