Illustration 16

asked 17 hrs ago

In this illustration, Excercise price -100 & fair value as on grant date -130. Intrinsic value is 30, this should have been used for calculating expenses over the vesting period. I do understand that on contrary the SBP have been compensated for Rs.95 but, but it is not probable on day 1 sir, Why was Employee Benefit expenses being calculated on 130.

latest answer

No answers yet!!

kavitha selvam

CA Final

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5

LEASE

answered on 21-Jan-25 18:55

ILLUSTRATION 38 THERE IS NO ADDITIONAL DATA THAT SIR DISCUSSED ABOUT WAIVE OFF LEASE PAYMENT

latest answer

Okay sir

Naveen Kumar

CA Final

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31

Borrowing cost

answered on 21-Jan-25 09:43

So we can Capitalise the Borrowing cost so far capitalised * Capitalisation Rate But for this problem we havent done this way in the 3rd year

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Generally for debentures interest would be paid out. Hence not capitalised. Alternatively, we can take that assumption and capitalise as well.

Hemachandra D

CA Final

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25

54 Lakhs treatment

answered on 21-Jan-25 09:46

Sir in the question given 54 lacs has advance for other additional assets as on acquired on 25th april 2021 given, so dont we have to consider interest for 54 lacs from 25th april ?

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Interest is incurred form 1st April and for specific borrowings [ out of the total borrowing, the amount for installation and advance] we consider the period from date of borrowing.

Hemachandra D

CA Final

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21

Paragraph numbers with respect to exam

answered on 21-Jan-25 09:48

is it necessary to write para numbers in exam, will we get full marks even if you dont mention "Para Numbers" of IND AS while answering

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Paragraph numbers are not required.

Hemachandra D

CA Final

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24

Revaluation surplus

answered on 17-Jan-25 09:31

Sir in this ques. After revaluation initially for the Fy 20x4 there is Rev Surplus, same transferred to OCI. During Fy 20X5, there is a dep on revalued asset and it was said in the class that excess dep should adjusted against rev surplus.. but here that is not the case entire dep has been taken to p&l. Is this the right approach or did I missed out anything.

latest answer

There are two options 1. Depreciation based on Revalued Amount - Depreciation based on original cost -> Transferred to Retained Earnings from OCI. IN this case full depreciation is debited to P&L. 2. Transfer to the revaluation surplus to Retained earnings after the asset is disposed.

kavitha selvam

CA Final

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41

if earlier it was carried at FV

answered on 16-Jan-25 11:12

Sir what if the Asset as per Ind AS 16 earlier was carried under FV considering revaluation model, now its transfere to Investment property, now the carrying amount will be the carrying amount earlier (FV was the carrying amount earlier) or need to recompute the cost..

latest answer

Carrying amount will not be changed. So carrying amount as per Ind AS 16 will be considered. As per Ind AS 40 Transfers between investment property, owner-occupied property and inventories do not change the carrying amount of the property transferred and they do not change the cost of that property for measurement or disclosure purposes

Hemachandra D

CA Final

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34

Capitalisation Rate - RTP

answered on 21-Jan-25 10:03

Sir, As the question mentioned the borrowings are general borrowings why have we not found out the capitalisation Rate.??

latest answer

Also since it is a single borrowing, capitalisation rate would be same as the borrowing rate.

K Vamshi

CA Final

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4

40

Finance lease

answered on 21-Jan-25 10:06

For calculating the selling profit or loss the cost of goods sold is nothing but the difference between the carrying amount minus the PV of guaranteed residual value or unguaranteed residual value. there is a doubt regarding this, for the purpose of determination of finance lease and also for the purpose of revenue computation we need to exclude the from the present value of lease payment the unguaranteed residual value. Please clarify.

latest answer

Unguaranteed residual value is not a part of lease payment since there is no party who has committed to pay it. So it would not be considered.

natarajan k

CA Inter

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33

Ind AS 19 - Employee Benefits

answered on 15-Jan-25 18:57

Sir, In this question the Return on Plan Assets means the Loss/ Gain due to Remeasurement ? Also Investment Income means the Expected Return?

latest answer

Yeah saw this. But sir you mentioned that Investment income and Return should be combined ( means idly when we do problems return expected on plan assets we deduct from Expense ) So , here my doubt was this return on plan assets given is similar to that adjustment due to remeasurement?. Is it like that while doing plan assets this loss/ gain due to remeasurement will have to be considered.?

Rahel Rayu

CA Final

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57