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Macaulay Duration
AFM
answered 9 hrs ago
Hello Sir, Basically Macaulay Duration is the duration taken for the investor to get back the money invested + interests. So when two bonds are given, should we not choose the bond with lower duration?
latest answer
Understood sir, thank you so much
susee arunachalam
CA Final
★ 25K+
2
24
Unspent amount related to ongoing projects
Corporate & Other Laws
asked 11 hrs ago
In case of failure to spend, company shall transfer to a Fund specified in Schedule VII within 30 days or 6 months from date of completion of 3rd FY? Kindly clarify
latest answer
No answers yet!!
Swetha S
CA Inter
★ 2K+
0
13
Cost not included in carrying value of PPE
Financial Reporting
asked 11 hrs ago
If insurance cost is incurred before a PPE is ready to use, should it be capitalised? As it is not related to bringing the machinery to its present location and condition as intended by management
latest answer
No answers yet!!
Kavin Cj
CA Final
★ 0
0
11
ICITSS Training related query
Others
answered 9 hrs ago
Can i use my token number of IT in a particular pou branch against another pou branch?
latest answer
Yes you can
Chitra Sivakumar
CA Inter
★ 165
1
24
Bond valuation
AFM
answered 9 hrs ago
What is this 1/2 in the given formula?? Sir does the convexity formula have this 1/2 in it??
latest answer
icai uses 1/2 in C* formula i.e ( C * = (V+ + V - - 2V0)/ ( 2 V0 x delta y power 2 ) denominator has 2 i.e 1/2 is multiplied at C* level itself i suggest you follow icai rest of the world ( including CFA and several other renowned authors) follow what is given in p590 - i shall change the Book P590 - thanks for pointing it out
nazriya nasar
CA Final
★ 7K+
1
9
Basis points
AFM
answered 11 hrs ago
How much is 50 basis points in %?
latest answer
0.5% 100 basis points (bps) is 1%
nazriya nasar
CA Final
★ 7K+
1
12
Nominal cashflow computation
AFM
answered 9 hrs ago
In this question(qn no 1), we know that the depreciation is constant (₹10,000) across all 4 years. The real cashflow without inflation is ₹15,000. Subsequently, when computing the nominal cashflows for years 1 to 4, the factor of 1.1 (10%) is directly applied on this real cashflow. Is this the correct way as it applies the inflation rate on depreciation too? Shouldn't the nominal cashflow of the subsequent year be calculated as below? Nominal cashflow after tax = [(Revenue x 1+i) - (Cost x 1+i)] x (1 -Tax rate) + (Depreciation x Tax rate) = [(30,000 x 1.1) - (10,000 x 1.10)] x (1 - 0.5) + (10,000 x 0.5) = (33,000 - 11,000) x 0.5 + 5,000 = 16,000
latest answer
in what i have solved in class i did Method A nominal cashflows 15000 x 1.1 ( 1.12) 1.12 = 1.1 x 1.0182 So technically it is 15000 / 1.0182 Method 2 real cash flows = 15000 / 1.0182 hence diff does not exist In your working both real and nominal cash flows are computed differently and hence diff
Srinivasan R
CA Final
★ 0
4
24
Class
Strategic Management
asked 14 hrs ago
Is there any revision class for sm
latest answer
No answers yet!!
MONISHA RAJ
CA Inter
★ 0
0
17
New Syllabus
Auditing
answered 15 hrs ago
When will these new syllabus videos will get updated?
latest answer
This week onwards.
Surya Prakash
CA Final
★ 14K+
1
20
FRA rates
AFM
answered 9 hrs ago
if a 6 x 12 FRA having the rates of 6.5% - 6.75%, that means if a person wants to borrow under FRA it will be @6.75% and if he want to deposit under the deposit under FRA it will be 6.5%., irrespective of the period of deposit (i.e., 06 or 12 months tenure) Is my understanding correct? or am i missing something here? Please clarify..
latest answer
Acha okay, thanks sir
Chandu vadla
CA Final
★ 10K+
5
18