Forums
Conversion
Others
answered 1 hr ago
I don't give exam in nov 2023 then how to convert in new syllabus
latest answer
After 2023 dec exams you will be directly converted into new scheme
POOJA BANSAL
CA Final
★ 0
1
9
Partnership Accounts Admission
Accountancy
answered 9 hrs ago
How did we got 50,000 sir please help
latest answer
And thankyou
Prathmesh Sanjyot Kharul
CA Foundation
★ 3K+
8
59
Ca intermediate both groups preparation
Others
answered 10 hrs ago
Hai friends Ca intermediate both groups classes with conceptual clarity minimum how many months take Revision how many months required
latest answer
Depends on individual student's choice.
siddesh N
CA Inter
★ 3K+
3
58
Forex illustration - 76
SFM
answered 11 hrs ago
Sir , in this problem , u have converted the lot size ( GBP into USD) , in the attached images I have converted total exposure into pound and calculated lots , lot size is same both ways 17.7. Now , Total exposure - covered = uncovered In your case - 364897 USD - 361250 USD = 3647 USD In my case - 214645 GBP - 212500 GBP = 2145 GBP But while converting 3647 USD into GBP u have used 1.5455 rate , so GBP equivalent comes to 2359.75. In your case uncovered GBP is 2359.75 ( I understand as per logic , uncovered should be converted at forward rate ,in this case 1.5455 ), but in both ways it should come with the same answer right ? In my case the rate 1.7 is automatically applied for uncovered portion also as I have converted exposure currency into lot size currency. If I do this way in exam is it correct ? Or should I just always convert the lot size currency into exposure currency ?
latest answer
Lots are quoted in exposure currency and computation has to be made in that currency only. If you do the way in which you solved, you will obviously get a diff answer you are using an option strike price for unhedged portion which is not a correct way of computing.
Enuguru Sai Nithin
CA Final
★ 78K+
1
26
Sec 50C
Direct Taxation
answered 10 hrs ago
If transfer is between relatives whether sec 50C is applicable for seller ??
latest answer
Thank you sir
Pavan Reddy
CA Inter
★ 28K+
2
51
Forex - illustration - 91
SFM
answered 11 hrs ago
Sir , in the question ,the margin given for buying is 0.075% and for selling 0.20 % But in the solution, when we are selling the USD at spot to cancel the interbank transaction, why did we deduct 9 0.075 % ? rather than 0.20 %? , because if we are selling, so selling margin should be applicable right ? margin given from whom point of view ? How to identify ?
latest answer
Even for margin and premium Pls think of Buy and selling as Bid and Ask and both of them are from bank perspective - Bank always buys at a cheaper rate and sells at a higher rate. IN solution - org contact was to buy US as the customer is importer - when the contract ahs to be cancelled - the customer has to now agree to Sell currency - so sale rate for customer will be buy for bank which is bid Whenever bid currency rate is used, bid margin is used. Same way for new fwd contract customer agrees to buy currency so for bank it is ask rate so ask premium is added
Enuguru Sai Nithin
CA Final
★ 78K+
1
26
CMA articleship
Exams
answered 1 day ago
I have joined CA articleship, it's been 3 months now. I have also cleared my CMA intermediate both groups in June 23. I wanted to write CMA final in June 24. Is CA articleship enough for cma articleship or shall I keep dummy articles for CMA. Or are there any other ways?
latest answer
You have complete cma articleship before appearing cma finals.
Nanditha Yara
CA Inter
★ 15K+
1
60
Forex illustration - 55
SFM
answered 1 day ago
Sir in the image attached , when customer is buying USD , margin of 5 Paisa is added , but when he is selling USD, why is margin not deducted? Can you please explain this.
latest answer
MArgin provided in Q is also on INR - there is no margin provided in Q for USD / SGD
Enuguru Sai Nithin
CA Final
★ 78K+
2
36
Joint venture
Accountancy
answered 3 hrs ago
M and N enter into joint venture where 'M' supplies goods worth 12,000 and spend 200 on various expenses. 'N' sells the entire lot for 15,000 meeting selling expenses amounted to 400 profit sharing ratio equal. N remits M the amount due. The amount of remittance will be (a) 13,400 (b) 14,600 (c) 12,800 (d) 12,200
latest answer
12200+1200 = 13,400.
Sowmiga Chandrasekaran
CMA Foundation
★ 7K+
2
53
Lost marksheets and admit card
Others
answered 24 hrs ago
I lost both my previous marksheets and admit card. Is there any way to apply for duplicate marksheet without roll number as I don't have previous admit card. Or is there any possible way to recover admit card. Kindly help me with this
latest answer
Sure will try thanks
Shiva R
CA Inter
★ 10
4
106
