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Illusn 14
Financial Reporting
answered on 14-Jun-24 10:29
The solution for this question is solved differently by ICAI, can you please explain the diff?
latest answer
The assumption taken here is that the issuer would settle in cash. if we assume that it is settled in equity, then the liability component would change accordingly.
Priyanka Udeshi
CA Final
★ 14K+
1
66
Earning per share
Financial Reporting
answered on 18-Jun-24 10:38
Convertible preference shares (conversion at the option of the company) I want to treat is as financial liability. For calculation of earning per share dividend on these share what is the treatment I have to give. My question is it a valid question.
latest answer
yes
swaminathan sundaram
CA Final
★ 110
3
73
Earning Per Share
Financial Reporting
answered on 18-Jun-24 10:38
I am attaching question and JV entry for the same. Can you please check the same. If my JV is wrong can you send rectified JV
latest answer
no.
swaminathan sundaram
CA Final
★ 110
3
64
Embedded Derivative illustrations
Financial Reporting
answered on 17-Jun-24 12:04
In the illustration Non of the company has entered into any forward contract. It’s kinda notional and revaluation of the liability and asset basis the Forward rate. Please confirm my understanding
latest answer
Cleared sir. Thank you
Chandan Subudhi
CA Final
★ 12K+
4
94
illustration 7 and 8
Financial Reporting
answered on 14-Jun-24 10:45
In module illusn 7 - exchange loss on purchase is being recorded in CFS, while in question 8 there's no such mention of recoding of exchange loss why so? Please explain
latest answer
The purchase is made in Euro's in second case so the buyer will not have any loss.
Priyanka Udeshi
CA Final
★ 14K+
1
75
Consolidation
Financial Reporting
answered on 07-Jun-24 11:21
Dividend adjustment cannot understand properly
latest answer
Where is the question?
Rakesh Saraf
CA Final
★ 0
2
69
4th point??
Financial Reporting
answered on 03-Jun-24 15:10
Sir please explain 4th point in business combinations.I'm not able to understand properly
latest answer
Ok sir
Surya Prakash
CA Final
★ 14K+
2
103
Recognition of an expense
Financial Reporting
answered on 02-Jun-24 22:41
Sir, It has been said that Items acquired in the business combination and cannot be recognized as an Intangible asset can be capitalized by forming part of amount recognised as goodwill But why it should be capitalized if it is not recognisable , as in the earlier classes it has been said that if does not meet recognition criteria it should be expensed Please clarify
latest answer
You will learn in Ind AS 103. Similar to concept of Goodwill as per AS 14
Gunda Sharan
CA Final
★ 0
1
76
IND AS 12
Financial Reporting
answered on 03-Jun-24 16:54
Sir can you please explain the part marked under red brackets in the enclosed photo? Not able to understand the language properly. Also would be helpful if any reference to understand the same is there.
latest answer
If account receivable outstanding is Rs. 100. When you recover that Rs. 100, there is no tax consequence. So tax base = carrying amount. For depreciable asset, tax base is the amount that would be deductible in future against income . So continuing Suresh's example, 92 will be cumulatively deducted in future. That would be the tax base.
Priyanka Udeshi
CA Final
★ 14K+
3
125
Illustration 6
Financial Reporting
answered on 03-Jun-24 17:10
In this illustration, whether it has been assumed that the contribution are in the nature of Government Grant
latest answer
It is given in the question.
Swathi S
CA Final
★ 0
1
59
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