Forums
Illustration - 43
Financial Reporting
answered 2 days ago
Sir, Since NCI is measured using the proportionate share of net assets method, will NCI also have to bear its proportionate share of ₹70,000 impairment loss on goodwill?
latest answer
Whenever we measure NCI using Proportionate share in Net Asset method, Goodwill is partial goodwill. So first we gross up the goodwill to 100%. The we compute goodwill impairment for 100% portion and then allocate it in 80:20 ratio. Parent bears only 80%. If however, in exam questions they give impairment amount directly (and NCI is using prop share in Net Assets) then, its is the amount relating to parent's portion only.
Arathy Raju
CA Final
★ 695
6
42
Bond refund
AFM
answered on 05-Oct-26 18:53
Why Kd is used to discount Incremental cash inflows?
latest answer
because that is the cost of money at that time - if not this what else would you assume?
Hiren Ghadiya
CA Final
★ 1K+
1
23
intere transfer [llustration 1]
Costing
answered 1 day ago
transfer profit 25% 40500 is cost so we want to calculate 40500+25% =50625 then why we want to callculate 40500/75%= 54000 [Video Time Stamp: 06:26]
latest answer
Profit is 25% on transfer price. So if transfer price is 100, Profit is 25 and cost is 75. So if cost is 75, transfer price is 100 If cost is 40,500, transfer price is 40,500/75 x 100
Jeevethan
CMA Inter
★ 0
1
16
Compound interest
Financial Reporting
answered on 05-Oct-26 09:27
Sir here why we didnt allocated 48000 of finance cost to Fl and equity and recorded the same ? [Video Time Stamp: 10:34]
latest answer
For subsequent measurement: The Equity component remains untouched. The Financial Liability is measured at amortized cost.
Niranjan Bhat
CA Final
★ 10K+
2
20
Compound Instrument
Financial Reporting
answered on 05-Oct-26 09:27
Here basically the 9% will be treated as market rate right ? [Video Time Stamp: 16:30]
latest answer
Yes. You are right.
Niranjan Bhat
CA Final
★ 10K+
1
11
Compount Instruments
Financial Reporting
answered on 05-Oct-26 09:28
Sir where and how we will show this equity in BS ? [Video Time Stamp: 10:12]
latest answer
Under other equity
Niranjan Bhat
CA Final
★ 10K+
1
6
Changes in Interest rate
Financial Reporting
answered on 05-Oct-26 09:34
Sir here why we took 8% int rate i.e 12000 every year for calculating as interest rate changed in second year we should take that rate to calculate the interest payment for the remaining 9 years right ? [Video Time Stamp: 08:42]
latest answer
For amortised cost method, we compute interest using the original rate only,
Niranjan Bhat
CA Final
★ 10K+
1
13
Amortised cost
Financial Reporting
answered on 04-Oct-26 19:46
Sir if its bullet payment then the interest of every year will that be payed at the end of year 5 ? that is will we pay 15000 ? or we will pay interest every year ? [Video Time Stamp: 14:07]
latest answer
Interest is paid every year. Bullet payment is for principal only
Niranjan Bhat
CA Final
★ 10K+
1
14
Foreign company
Corporate & Other Laws
answered 18 hrs ago
In problem no: 4, 2nd point, company incorporated in uae, having agent in India. (Agent count as a place of business in India) . Then why this company is not foreign company? [Video Time Stamp: 05:17]
latest answer
yes
Geeta B
CA Inter
★ 8K+
3
27
Illustration 26
AFM
answered on 04-Oct-26 19:34
Sir we have exactly similar question in illustration 8. There you have said that % change is irrelevant for this type of question. But why in this sum we are considering the changed portfolio value which we did not do in illustration 8
latest answer
Pls show value of portfolio after change and compute
Balavignesh
CA Final
★ 985
3
21